Husband came to know tha affair through mails in the recent past the contents of the e mails are significantly approve her affair he wishes to quit her
whether e mails work as document of evidence advice
2006-08-02 19:41:22 · 9 answers · asked by lion p 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
In the UK the party wanting a divorce no longer has to provide grounds for divorce other than that there has been an irretrievable breakdown of the marriage. He will not need to provide evidence of his wife's pre marriage "affair" so it does not matter whether the emails could be accepted as evidence or not.
The husbands (or wifes) desire for the divorce is sufficient.
2006-08-02 19:52:29 · answer #1 · answered by John H 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
I'm assuming we're talking about someone in England or Wales. The Husband has no grounds for divorce on the adultery aspect as adultery can only take place after the marriage. He may be able to divorce her on Unreasonable Behaviour grounds, but he'd have to come up with allegations of behaviour after the wedding as well as mentioning his loss of trust arising from what he's recently discovered about her behaviour pre-marriage. If they haven't been married for a year yet, he can't issue proceedings till the first anniversary. I'd recommend trying Relate before rushing into divorce proceedings.
2006-08-02 23:19:48 · answer #2 · answered by david 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This happened before they were married? I'd say he should get over it. It doesn't work as evidence of anything except that she existed before she married him and I don't think that news is going to cause any dramatic ah ha moments in court. Besides what is he trying to gain anyway? Tell him it would be just as mature and just as helpful to stick his tongue at her for a REALLY long time!
2006-08-02 21:16:13 · answer #3 · answered by dappersmom 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it was pre-marriage, but nothing afterwards, then where is the problem... Maybe she wanted one last fling before getting shackled... That is a tradition...
If she has been fooling around after the marriage, then she needs to get her head looked at and find out why she needed to get married to one guy and see another...
2006-08-02 21:05:14 · answer #4 · answered by Forlorn Hope 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A pre-marital affair has NO standing in court. The only thing that matters is after the words "I do".
2006-08-02 20:04:36 · answer #5 · answered by Bachman-ette 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What is in the past has got nothing to do with the present. As long the assurance that it is no more and will not happen again. I think it is alright. Stay faithful
2006-08-02 19:49:17 · answer #6 · answered by sonisunny 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I do not understand what you said,
did you read the question, or statement? YOU LEFT HERE?
I do not mean to be disrespectful, but the sentence is not exactly, specific about anything,,, makes no sense,,
if you were in a hurry, ok, but geeze,,what is all that about.?
2006-08-02 19:48:52 · answer #7 · answered by Maureen K 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sure, but it was b/f they were actually married. So I don't think it will make much of a difference. I do agree--I would be angry and ready to get the annulment too.
2006-08-02 19:45:39 · answer #8 · answered by just julie 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
premarriage affairs does not count
2006-08-05 22:47:29 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋