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And vise versa. If you don't think this is true it would be good to know, why?

2006-08-02 11:24:44 · 5 answers · asked by Gumby G 2 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

5 answers

hi i read your question. i think everything has something therefore we can't say that there is nothing in anything. if u think that a thing is useless it is useless only in your view .even the air u breathe contains lots & lots of things.an atom is the smallest of particles but it contain enormous amount of energy. the thing is that if you think that there could be something in anything you definitely can have unless u find the correct way to find & use it.

2006-08-05 19:02:00 · answer #1 · answered by beninu 2 · 1 0

Actually, you can't possibly "have" nothing. But you *can* have something. So your statement is false.

2006-08-02 18:32:20 · answer #2 · answered by Keither 3 · 0 0

let us have some positive attitude. o.k. we can have something for nothing or we can have nothing for something. i think the meaning is same .isn't it ?

2006-08-08 05:10:49 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Right. Except "without" is one word.

2006-08-02 18:33:01 · answer #4 · answered by Arrow 5 · 0 0

+
You can't have something for nothing.

2006-08-08 05:02:56 · answer #5 · answered by Calvin of China, PhD 6 · 0 0

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