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2006-08-02 09:17:59 · 10 answers · asked by Elite117 3 in Science & Mathematics Physics

And not just on its own mass?

2006-08-02 09:22:54 · update #1

becauss e the energy content of the Body that gave it inertia in the first place would have more effect if it had more energy, no?

2006-08-02 09:24:10 · update #2

10 answers

Absolutely! I just read about it the other day in Brian Greene's "The Fabric of the Cosmos". Paraphrasing his example, suppose you have three identical boxes, each containing a spring connecting two opposite sides. One spring is taut, pulling the sides together; a second string is limp (neither pushing nor pulling); and the third spring is compressed, pushing the sides apart.

If you put these boxes on an exquisitely accurate scale, they'll show three different weights, the differences equal to the mass equivalent of the energy stored in the springs.

He used this example to discuss "negative gravity".

2006-08-02 10:23:53 · answer #1 · answered by bpiguy 7 · 0 0

No. inertia of the body entirely depends on its mass and not on energy content.

2006-08-02 09:21:47 · answer #2 · answered by flori 4 · 0 0

till one is speaking approximately ability interior the accepted e=mc^2 context (through fact inertia does be counted on m), i'm especially advantageous it does not. EDIT; Boy, do i think stupid, i became already questioning of Einstein yet completely neglected the element Dr R reported. of direction on the speeds the conventional guy or woman bargains with daily, the version is especially small, even though it nonetheless there.

2016-10-01 09:49:39 · answer #3 · answered by rafael 4 · 0 0

It depends on it's mass and velocity. From a certain point of view, I guess you could say that mass is related to energy content. It's all relative(ity).

2006-08-02 09:23:51 · answer #4 · answered by Automation Wizard 6 · 0 0

Just mass. Inertia is a primary characteristic of mass.

2006-08-02 09:22:23 · answer #5 · answered by helixburger 6 · 0 0

Absolutely. Mass acquired from high velocity is indistinguishable from rest mass, as far as inertia is concerned or any other mass-based effect.

2006-08-02 09:26:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Nonrelativistically, no, it doesn't, mass is an invariant scalar.

Relativistically, the force formula involves gamma, which in turn involves velocity, so indirectly the kinetic energy that an object has is related to the relativistic force it can apply.

2006-08-02 09:26:22 · answer #7 · answered by kain2396 3 · 0 0

Inertia depends on the mass not on the energy, though energy also depends on mass. mgh, 0.5(mv^2) etc...

2006-08-02 09:23:21 · answer #8 · answered by skahmad 4 · 0 0

you sound like its a human body, but no other than gravitational potential energy. chemical potential energy doesnt affect inertia. (for instance a barrel of lead, and a barrel of gunpowder)

2006-08-02 09:22:39 · answer #9 · answered by ConradD 2 · 0 0

indeed no

2006-08-04 23:43:42 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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