2006-08-02 04:02:37 · 6 answers · asked by Gingerbread Man 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
Standardized spelling is a relatively new feature of all forms of the English language. In the U.S. it began when Noah Webster first published his dictionary in 1783, the same year he also published the first book on standardized grammar for American schools.
Even so, it was nearly 100 more years before many word forms settled into the spellings and usage rules now followed in the U.S. It was about the same for other English-speaking countries. One of the primary influences on that process was the spread of newspapers - accelerated by the institution of free public, compulsory education.
There are more specific linguistic roots to the process. You can pursue them, if this genuinely interests you, by looking up sites about the linguistics of the English language on the Internet.
2006-08-02 04:14:19 · answer #1 · answered by Der Lange 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No, even if persons yawn I do not. I love to play a sport with my peers wherein anyone will yawn and we noticed who yawns first. I on no account ordinarily win except I'm unwell with a bloodless seeing that I get so worn out it is as though I stayed up a complete week with a wink of sleep.
2016-08-28 13:59:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nah, man, you got it all backward. It's the Brits, Canadians, and Aussies that spell words like center, socialize, and neighbor differently. ;-)
2006-08-02 04:07:35 · answer #3 · answered by cool_breeze_2444 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Apparently they changed it, like it should be colour not color, flavour not flavor,
2006-08-02 04:07:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you're english it should figure that you're asking that .
2006-08-02 04:06:18 · answer #5 · answered by rumblybumbly1 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
their own way of tryin to be different....
2006-08-02 04:05:56 · answer #6 · answered by bugojanka69 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋