Using Taylor's theorem, one can prove that
e^x=\sum_{k=0}^{infinity} x^k/k!
for all values of x.
Hence,
e=e^1=sum_{k=0}^{infinity} 1^k/k!=
sum_{k=0}^{infinity} 1/k!
2006-08-01 23:19:42
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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U cud actually try it ur self..
after a while, when u start getting the 2.718 mark, the number you are adding gets very close to zero that u are actually adding a very small amount that it does not affect the answer that much..
2006-08-01 23:06:22
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answer #2
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answered by mr 2
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To elaborate on Jim's answer:
If y=sum x^k /k!
where k=0 to infty,
then taking the derivative term by term, you can see that
dy/dx=y.
This means that y=Ce^x for some constant C. By plugging in x=0, we see C=1, so
e^x =sum x^k /k!
Also, the radius of convergence of this series is infinite, so you can plug in x=1 to find
e=sum 1/k!
2006-08-02 00:41:12
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answer #3
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answered by mathematician 7
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there are number of ways to prove this .
2006-08-02 01:22:05
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answer #4
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answered by yours_ganeshvr 1
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If you don't believe it - work it out for yourself.
2006-08-01 22:53:36
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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say what??????
2006-08-01 22:52:53
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answer #6
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answered by crazy8s622 2
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