English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

^_^

Please explain/give a website^_^
^_^

2006-08-01 22:49:00 · 6 answers · asked by kevin! 5 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

Using Taylor's theorem, one can prove that

e^x=\sum_{k=0}^{infinity} x^k/k!

for all values of x.

Hence,

e=e^1=sum_{k=0}^{infinity} 1^k/k!=
sum_{k=0}^{infinity} 1/k!

2006-08-01 23:19:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

U cud actually try it ur self..

after a while, when u start getting the 2.718 mark, the number you are adding gets very close to zero that u are actually adding a very small amount that it does not affect the answer that much..

2006-08-01 23:06:22 · answer #2 · answered by mr 2 · 1 0

To elaborate on Jim's answer:
If y=sum x^k /k!
where k=0 to infty,
then taking the derivative term by term, you can see that
dy/dx=y.
This means that y=Ce^x for some constant C. By plugging in x=0, we see C=1, so
e^x =sum x^k /k!
Also, the radius of convergence of this series is infinite, so you can plug in x=1 to find
e=sum 1/k!

2006-08-02 00:41:12 · answer #3 · answered by mathematician 7 · 0 0

there are number of ways to prove this .

2006-08-02 01:22:05 · answer #4 · answered by yours_ganeshvr 1 · 1 0

If you don't believe it - work it out for yourself.

2006-08-01 22:53:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

say what??????

2006-08-01 22:52:53 · answer #6 · answered by crazy8s622 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers