My first language is Japanese.
Please teach me the minings of these terms.
1 It has rained for 2 weeks.
2 It has been raining for 2 weeks.
Is the first one correct precisely?
I guess 1st one means, the rainy-day may be only 1 day.
and we should say, for the LAST 2 weeks.
2nd one means. the rainy-day is 14days
What do you think??
2006-08-01 02:29:17 · 7 answers · asked by joejapan8 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
I mean, in first one possibly the rainy-day is 1 to 14days. i doesnt mean continuing of rainy-day.
second one means continuing of rainy-day.
what do you think?
2006-08-01 02:37:38 · update #1
If you say "It has rained for two weeks" you are implying that it rained for 14 days and the rain has stopped.
If you say "It has been raining for two weeks" you are implying that it has rained for the last 14 days and it is still raining.
2006-08-01 02:36:13 · answer #1 · answered by Tiffany5 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes the 2 first ones are correct
no they both mean same thing...so it has rained for 14 days in total...its just that u said it different way
2006-08-01 09:33:39 · answer #2 · answered by Kay 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi. Do you want to talk on msn or by mail? I can teach you english.
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2006-08-01 09:34:44 · answer #3 · answered by Japan_is_home 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do a lot of reading.Ur english is good.To make it even better read alot of books.
2006-08-01 09:42:20 · answer #4 · answered by akar 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
say ham-bur-ger hamburger
2006-08-01 09:33:08 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
vanessa p is reported.
2006-08-01 10:13:10 · answer #6 · answered by Nanako 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i dont know english
2006-08-01 09:37:49 · answer #7 · answered by Craig K 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋