2006-07-31 21:59:56 · 11 answers · asked by jadoo 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Law evolves with Time. Whats written in the Law books is not the final thing and is open for contestation and amendment.
Law also reflects the "ideals" of the society for which it stands.
Indian Law is very much influenced by the British times and IPC 377 which criminalises homosexuality is but a archiac victorian Law of 1860.
Times are changing and Sexual minorities are asserting themselves coming out of the closet.
Homosexual men too have the right to lead a dignified life and in this present context, yes the Indian Law is biased towards heterosexuals by not recognising the rights of homosexuals and its high time it has to change its stand on Homosexuality (and other forms of sexualities too).
2006-07-31 22:10:36 · answer #1 · answered by handyplast007 2 · 3⤊ 1⤋
U.S. Law does not allow Stem Cell research to be funded by Government - Is it biased?
Entire Middle East has governments backing Islam - Is it being biased?
Vatican does not support abortions - Is it biased?
The basis of such laws is local customs, traditions and social norms. And social norms in India dont support Homosexuality. It is looked down by most of the society. Law not recognizing it is a nice way of avoiding conflicts and also keeping safe the miniscule proportion of population which practices homosexuality.
Also, there have been cases of forced homosexuality which have potential of increasing manifolds if law allows it with consent. Every such crime will be proved to be done after consent.
2006-08-01 05:08:31 · answer #2 · answered by Awasthi 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeh, and I think the resason for that is cultural as well, cultuarly and religiosly every religion living in india does not except homosexuality, neither does indian culture. where as in our country ie America, England, the law has changed and addapted to the needs of people as well, although there is nothing wrong in being homosexual, even in a country where the law allows and excepts it, people are still very biased.
2006-08-01 05:05:47 · answer #3 · answered by sweetlikehoney_73 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No sexual adventure with any thing other then the genitals of a woman can be termed natural. a thing which is not natural has to be unnatural. rightly the Indian law calls it unnatural sex. it is definitely a correct position of law. the defence of consent can always be taken as valid defence. in India consenting partners can do any damn thing without the fear of law. when some one is sodomised against his or her consent, then no law on this earth can close its eyes.can any sensible person excuse any body for forcibly sodomising another person, whether man or woman or a child. can you permit a person to have sex with a *****, cow, Buffalo, goat, mare, she donkey or a duck for that matter. if you can still call it biased then I recommend you to attend a psychotherapist.
2006-08-01 06:26:22 · answer #4 · answered by pramod verma 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
General reality check folks (regardless of religion).
If a person has a p-e-n-i-s and has a Y chromosome in the DNA = he's a man.
If a person has a v-a-g-i-n-a and 3 X chromosomes in the DNA = she's a woman.
Any person who believes and even advocates that an individual is born homosexual fools only himself or herself.
Use it or lose it. - that's the bottom line.
Peace.
2006-08-01 05:10:59 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No just slow, simple and ignorant; just like you'd expect Indian law to be.
2006-08-01 05:04:51 · answer #6 · answered by Penta Jaye 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nor does it act on its own , unless somebody complains, so where is the question of bias !
2006-08-01 05:10:37 · answer #7 · answered by Spiritualseeker 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, it's got standards that the western world has forgotten.
2006-08-01 05:04:11 · answer #8 · answered by cymbalita 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope... Just their beliefs...
2006-08-01 05:03:34 · answer #9 · answered by The Shadow Wolf 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No,just moral.A homo is sick,there is no cure,they should all be killed.
2006-08-01 09:34:14 · answer #10 · answered by pops 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋