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Without giving specific legal advice (because I'm not licensed in Texas), my guess is that to be a foreseeable plaintiff and have standing to sue for the breach, either privity or direct comity with someone in privity would be required.

Thus, if my spouse or child bought a product based on an express warranty, and I was injured, I would expect that could give me standing under the breach, even though I personally did not have privity to the sale.


Quoting from the link below:
In the 1970s, several courts held that privity of contract was required in cases involving purely economic losses and express warranties, and these courts have not addressed the issue since that time. Tex. Processed Plastics, Inc. v. Gray Enter., Inc., 592 S.W.2d 412, 415 (Tex. Civ. App.-Tyler 1979, no writ.) ("[I]n situations involving solely economic loss based upon breach of express warranty, privity of contract between the parties is required.").
The more recent trend among courts of appeals, however, has been to find that privity of contract is not required in this situation. Edwards v. Schuh, 5 S.W.3d 829, 833 (Tex. App.-Austin 1999, no pet.) ("Privity is not required to enforce an express warranty under the DTPA.").
We agree with the reasoning of the more recent cases and hold that privity of contract is not required in order to sustain a breach of express warranty claim for purely economic losses. To hold otherwise could allow unscrupulous manufacturers who make public representations about their product's performance to, nevertheless, remain insulated from express warranty liability if consumers did not purchase the product directly from them. See Nobility Homes, 557 S.W.2d at 81-82 (noting possible abuses if privity strictly required); Indust-Ri-Chem Lab., 602 S.W.2d at 287 (applying Nobility Homes policy concerns to express warranties).

2006-07-31 13:17:34 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 3 0

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2016-11-03 10:11:08 · answer #2 · answered by overbay 4 · 0 0

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