if u have unlimited red balls and blue balls and ur chance of getting a blue ball is 1:170 that what is the chance of getting a red ball?
2006-07-31
11:04:37
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12 answers
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asked by
shelokay
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Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
i was wondering if 169:170 can be shown as 1 in ?
2006-07-31
11:09:22 ·
update #1
yes i asked about the downs syndrome.. i was wondering the other odds of it not being that is all
2006-07-31
11:10:14 ·
update #2
odds of not getting downs syndrome are pretty high.
169/170 = 0.994
Means that only six ppl out of thousand are likely to have it. If you know 994 ppl who don't have it, watch out.
2006-08-02 16:53:04
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answer #1
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answered by blind_chameleon 5
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This question gives an impossible circumstance, if you have unlimited blue & red balls then there will be an even chance or even odds. However if you meant there is an unknown number of red and blue balls then you can work out the answer.
You have got 2 different types of showing data in this question: odds and chance.
If the odds getting a blue ball is 1:170, then the chance of getting a blue ball is 1/171.
Therefore the chance of getting a blue ball is 170/171.
However, if you wanted the odds, then it would be 169:170.
You cannot simplify either of these as there is no number which you can divide both numbers by to leave them both as smaller whole numbers.
2006-08-01 11:13:08
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The odds are impossible to predict unless the number of reds and blues are known.
An UNLIMITED amount will only be possible of solution if the red and blue are of equal number.
Once you have studied the example below you can then substitute any combinations you wish including EQUAL numbers of red and blue.
e.g. 3 Red balls and 5 Blue balls in a bag.
Total = 8
Odds of picking a red is 3 in 8 or 3/8
Odds of picking a blue ball is 5 in 8 0r 5/8
Adding the TWO probabilities together, 3/8 + 5/8 = 1
This will ALWAYS be the sum of the probabilities no matter how many of each colour are in the bag.
7 reds and 7 blues.
Red probability 7/14 = 1/2
Blue probability 7/14 = 1/2
Total of probabilities = 1
If the Blue probability of 1 in 170 is FIXED irrespective of the number of balls then the probability of choosing a Red is 169/170
Blue 1/170 + Red 169/170 Total = 1
However, in this case the 170 is arbitrary and to keep the probabilities FIXED then any MULTIPLE of Reds and Blues MUST be kept in the same proportions as before.
e.g. 2/340 +238/340 Total = 1
CHANCE is the same as odds which is the SAME as Probability.
ODDS is a PROBABILITY expressed as a RATIO.
2006-08-01 09:10:58
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answer #3
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answered by CurlyQ 4
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Good question! You have 169 red balls and one blue and so your odds of getting a blue is 170 to 1 against. Your odds of getting a red 169 to one on! But you have unlimited number of balls. So multiple 170 by X to get Infinity, where X probably is infinity and the odds remain the same. 170 to 1 against for a blue and 169 to 1 on for a red. I'd bet on red! lol But great question, exercised my brain cells a little, at least 170 didn't die from lack of exercise..... lol
2006-08-02 08:07:54
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answer #4
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answered by Mike10613 6
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I assume that the reference to unlimited red and blue balls really means that you do not change the ratio of red to blue by picking one ball out of the set. If this is so:
the probability of getting a blue ball is 1/170 = 0.00588.....
so the probability of getting a red ball is 1 - 0.00588 = 0.99411
this can be expressed as 1:(1/0.99411) = 1:1.0059171......
2006-07-31 19:08:50
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answer #5
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answered by Stewart H 4
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Your top questions says ODDS. Odds are shown differently than probability which most answerers are using. Chance just doesn't tell me which you need. For example if you have 2 red and 3 blue balls, the probability of choosing red is 2/5. The odds of choosing red is 2:3.
2006-07-31 20:13:55
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answer #6
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answered by MollyMAM 6
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169:170 = 1:(170/169) =~
1:1.0059171597633136094674556213018
2006-07-31 18:37:15
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answer #7
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answered by bogusman82 5
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169:170, if there are only red and blue balls to choose from.
2006-07-31 18:08:15
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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If you have unlimited red and blue balls [and no other colour] your chance of picking a blue ball is evens.
Why?
Now matter how many of anything you have if there are only two types its 50/50
2006-07-31 18:11:43
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answer #9
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answered by Shauna 2
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ratio seems to be that which was quoted by person concerned by the results of a downs syndrome test. hope not going to give an answer based on red balls & blue balls. it's a very serious and worrying time for someone when dealing with test results.
if a coincidence then apologies.
2006-07-31 18:09:22
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answer #10
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answered by linkysplinx 3
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