I know it has gone back and forth a lot, but wasn't it the Jews land first??? I mean historically there is proof for that, so I'm not sure how people say it was lebanese land or palestinean land and israel took it....
2006-07-31 10:58:54 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Other - Social Science
The land all belonged to the Ottoman Empire until 1914. It was neither Jewish or Palestinian at the time, although there were populations of both groups residing in the land called Palestine. Therefore, the land was turkish (ottoman) for many hundreds of years. Prior to that it was controlled by the Byzantines (Eastern Roman Empire). In between there were a couple of crusades that resulted in temporary control by Christian and Muslim rulers. Prior to that, the Roman empire and before that either the Selucids or Ptolmies inheritors of Alexander's shortlived empire. During the time of the greeks and romans; there was a kingdom of judea/israel that was beholden to either the roman emperor or the greek rulers. That gets us back to about 330 BC. Before that you had Persian rule and babylonian rule from the end of the Jewish Kindom that originated with Saul, David and Solomon.
With regards to the guy whom mentioned that Israel attacked in 1948; you got that all wrong buddy. Israel was attacked by 5 arab countries once it was given indenpendence by UN mandate in 1948. Point the finger at those whom have terrorized israel since then; not at the israeli's defending themselves. About the unfortunate of civilians yesterday; I saw the video on CNN, MSNBC and FOX showing that Hezbollah is firing missles from civilian areas; in effect using their own populace as Human shields; not something that any democratically elected country would do.
2006-07-31 11:08:36 · answer #1 · answered by goldmedaldiver 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
some time back in '48 the jews took a lot of land during a war. Not just sure where and how much but they took land that wasn't theirs. Now they are killing babies and women in an attempt to get more land. when will the killing stop. It seems that the jews cannot get along with anybody over there.It seems that they are fighting or bickering with one nation or another all the time.
2006-07-31 11:03:31 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well.....that is a touchy subject....the people of the Bible were not Jews, they were Israelites... and alot of people don't seem to realize the difference between the two...The name "Jew" came from the people of the tribe of Judah, which was only a small group of the Israelites... anyway, the land of the new Israel was given to the Jews in 1948 by Britain, America and the other winners of WWII...that is why the Muslims are so angry
2006-07-31 11:11:06 · answer #3 · answered by Slap Happy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you could't very likely base this over who the land develop into promised to on condition that now no longer each and every individual believes in the completed "the land develop into once promised to the jews" element. no longer each and every individual has an identical non secular beliefs. hence the it belongs to the palestinians. The zionists were unsuitable of their statement that palestine develop into "a land without a human beings for a people and under no circumstances using a land" and the Belfour assertion in which the british signed palestine over to the jews ought to ought to be recognized null- and void. I quote: ""His Majesty's authorities view with choose the institution in Palestine of a united states of america huge residing for the Jewish persons, and could use their tremendous endeavors to facilitate the fulfillment of this merchandise, it being obviously understood that no longer something will be finished which will prejudice the civil and religious rights of modern non-Jewish communities in Palestine, or the rights and political acceptance loved with suggestions from Jews overseas." the belfour statement obviously states that palestine is given to the Jews on the condition the "no longer something may be done that may prejudice the civil and religious rights of exitsting non-Jewish communities in Palestine" Israel has already damaged that contract 100 situations over. And one very last element- that is a great deal conventional that israel broke the give up hearth on november 4, 2008 so Hamas as an elected political crew had the right to retaliate. Cheers : )
2016-11-27 01:48:23 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Even the history of this land is argued. It's difficult to say, but the wikipedia isn't bad. Gives lots of info:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israel
2006-07-31 11:02:24 · answer #5 · answered by MEL T 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Romans where there long before anyone so I say give It to the Italians
2006-07-31 11:01:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you will look into it you will find it's formally and previously know as Babylon,then go to the bible and look at the prophacy made about babylon. Think you will find it very interesting.
2006-07-31 11:10:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It says in the bible that they were never supposed to have land. Or else this would happen... this war.. this dying...
2006-07-31 11:00:31 · answer #8 · answered by Starlight 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, but do you know who was there at one time!! JESUS CHRIST
2006-07-31 11:04:13 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋