2006-07-31 04:47:30 · 4 answers · asked by broke and mad 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
no one in texas can count anyways so i dont think any of them care.
2006-07-31 04:49:42 · answer #1 · answered by QuizTheOneWithoutOne 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As others have suggested, the verbal settlement is legally binding, yet whilst the son denies it ever surpassed off then there is little or no which could be executed, with the aid of fact the burden of knowledge would be on the plaintiff (the daddy) in any courtroom case. besides the undeniable fact that, if any money have been made before the son stopped honoring the settlement, economic company records showing this could be used as data that there became some form of repayment plan in place. it could additionally matter on the choose. i've got seen judges who area with the plaintiff in circumstances like this, inspite of a loss of tangible data, with the aid of fact of a good droop that the recipient of the loan is mendacity. A loan of that length, exceedingly, ought to continually be observed via a written settlement.
2016-11-03 09:19:03 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Basically a verbal contract is the same as a written contract but a written contract takes precedent.
If you want to prove an oral contract exists you must show evidence that terms were agreed upon, detriment was incurred, consideration was specified and that payment was requested if not paid. For loans you must eestablish debt, interest and collection attempts.
In short it is the same as if you wrote it out.
2006-07-31 04:56:21 · answer #3 · answered by LORD Z 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure, but I think verbal agreements are enforceable in Texas.
2006-07-31 04:49:51 · answer #4 · answered by nacmanpriscasellers 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋