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THE VERBAL CONTRACT WAS FOR 03-06. A CROP WAS PUT IN, IN 03, SINCE THEN THE LAND HAS NOT BEEN TOUCHED.
WE RERENTED TO SOMEONE ELSE, NOW THE PREVIOUS RENTER WANTS US TO PAY FOR THE CROP HE HAS LEFT UNATTENDED SINCE 03. DO WE OWE HIM FOR THE COST OF PUTTING IN THE CROP? OR DOES HE OWE US FOR 3 YRS. CROP RENT? WE WERE WILLING TO LET THIS GO AND CALL IT A WASH, UNTILL HE DEMANDED THE COST OF HIS CROP.

2006-07-31 04:06:07 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

2 answers

Ownership is 99% of the law. Had he just planted the crop in the spring and wanted to collect now, I'd say it belonged to him. However, he planted in '03 and abandoned the crops. My guess is that they are yours.

2006-07-31 04:11:08 · answer #1 · answered by Apple21 6 · 0 0

why the f would you not get the agreement in writing? verbal agreements don't count for squat in court.

in your case, I would call it a wash. if the dude sues, he can sue all he wants, but since the agreement was verbal, he has no proof.

2006-07-31 04:13:58 · answer #2 · answered by pooh8402 3 · 0 0

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