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is log<(x-a)*(x-a)*...........n times>=nlog(x-a) always?

2006-07-31 00:52:30 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Let's consider log (x^2)

The domain of this function is all real numbers except for x=0

Now let's consider the domain of the function:

2*log(x)

The domain of this function is all x>0. (Notice that one cannot include x<0 because the log of a negative number is not defined.)

So, one would have to restrict the domain of the functions
log(x^2) and 2 log (x) to be all x>0 for the functions to be equal.

2006-07-31 01:09:29 · answer #1 · answered by z_o_r_r_o 6 · 0 0

1) domain : x>6 since argument of log is only defined for >0
2) yes. log(x) + log (y) = log(x*y) for all x,y >0

2006-07-31 09:19:08 · answer #2 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 0 0

Yes, log<(x-a)*(x-a)*...........n times>=nlog(x-a) always.

2006-07-31 07:57:08 · answer #3 · answered by sharanan 2 · 0 0

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