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4 answers

No, not usually. Both applicants will need to sign the form signing where the funds have to be transferred to, so that's how they establish that the other person has authorised paying the funds to just one of the borrowers.

2006-07-30 22:20:00 · answer #1 · answered by Graham I 6 · 1 0

Not at all. You can have the funds in any account, even in your mum's if you like, it just means that you are jointly responsible for the repayment of the loan.

2006-07-30 22:27:30 · answer #2 · answered by ribena 4 · 0 0

Not usually

2006-07-30 22:26:30 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I don't think so, it just means that if one cannot pay the other will.

2006-07-30 22:18:18 · answer #4 · answered by A G 4 · 0 0

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