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lets say a women wants to Abort her child, but the man/father wants that so called inconvence/unwanted child how come he cannot do so then?
If it is merely inconvient for the women to be a mother and/or she is not in the possition to do so but is completely cabable fo carring that child for 9 months so that the father who does want it can have it , then why does she have the right to kill it?
because it is her body, well then that does not go along with the Pro Choice arguement then, does it.
After all, we are talking about inconviences and women who cannot not raise the child, not about her ability to actually have one are we?

2006-07-30 13:08:16 · 3 answers · asked by melissa s 4 in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

3 answers

so called inconvenience/unwanted child how come he cannot do so then?

The woman has a choice. She can choose to act like a prostitute, a whore---as the Bible says----or she can choose not to act in that way. If she gets pregnant and is "inconvenienced" in her prostitution and whoredom by this child and she kills the child so she can continue in her sinful nature, then she is not only guilty of being a prostitute---she is guilty of murder.

No matter what "society" says, killing a baby---even in utero is a sin and it is murder.

Sex was not ordained to be used like a video game---where you can play with it all you want to until you get tired ot it, then you can just lay it down and forget about it.

2006-07-30 13:15:54 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, fits perfectly with the "pro choice" argument.

The "pro choice" argument is this: the woman in question gets to *choose* how her own body is used. If she doesn't want a fetus in it, you cannot force her to have a fetus in it. Etc.

2006-07-30 20:14:34 · answer #2 · answered by extton 5 · 0 0

The arguement will be her body, she carries the child despite it taking two to agree to sex, two to have sex, and two to conceive the child.

2006-07-30 20:13:35 · answer #3 · answered by JB 6 · 0 0

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