lets say a women wants to Abort her child, but the man/father wants that so called inconvence/unwanted child how come he cannot do so then?
If it is merely inconvient for the women to be a mother and/or she is not in the possition to do so but is completely cabable fo carring that child for 9 months so that the father who does want it can have it , then why does she have the right to kill it?
because it is her body, well then that does not go along with the Pro Choice arguement then, does it.
After all, we are talking about inconviences and women who cannot not raise the child, not about her ability to actually have one are we?
2006-07-30
13:08:16
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3 answers
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asked by
melissa s
4
in
Society & Culture
➔ Other - Society & Culture