Because the Voting Rights Act is remedial in nature, meaning that once the inequities in the voting system have been eliminated, the law will no longer be needed.
In truth, the Voting Rights Act didn't need to be reauthorized THIS time. The old voting restrictions it was meant to correct are long gone, and no one with any legitimate political influence seeks their return. Political realities however, are another thing altogether. If the Republican majority had failed to do this, the Democrats would have demagogued the issue and accused the Republicans of racism during the upcoming election.
2006-07-30 09:01:40
·
answer #1
·
answered by Jay S 5
·
1⤊
0⤋
Obvously you don't understand the history behind the Voting Rights Acts of 1965, or you wouldn't ask this.
------------------------------------------------------------
What Is The Current Controversy Over The Expiration Of The Voting Rights Act?
The “Preclearance” Section Of The Voting Rights Act Will Expire In 2007, But The Rest Of The Act Will Remain In Effect. “[S]ome sections of the Voting Rights Act need to be renewed to remain in effect. When Congress amended and strengthened the Voting Rights Act in 1982, it extended for 25 more years – until 2007 – the preclearance requirement of Section 5 … So, for those sections to extend past 2007, Congress will have to take action. But even if these special provisions are not renewed, the rest of the Voting Rights Act will continue to prohibit discrimination in voting.” (U.S. Department Of Justice Website, http://www.usdoj.gov, Accessed 6/13/05)
The “Preclearance” Section Requires Certain States To Submit Any Changes In Their Voting Procedures To The Department Of Justice For Approval Before They Can Take Effect. “Section 5 is a special provision of the statute … that requires state and local governments in certain parts of the country (Alabama, Alaska, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Louisiana, Michigan, Mississippi, New Hampshire, New York, North Carolina, South Carolina, South Dakota, Texas, Virginia) to get federal approval (known as ‘preclearance’) before implementing any changes they want to make in their voting procedures: anything from moving a polling place to changing district lines in the county. Under Section 5, a covered state, county or local government entity must demonstrate to federal authorities that the voting change in question (1) does not have a racially discriminatory purpose; and (2) will not make minority voters worse off than they were prior to the change (i.e. the change will not be ‘retrogressive’).” (U.S. Department Of Justice Website, http://www.usdoj.gov, Accessed 6/13/05)
2006-07-30 15:58:35
·
answer #2
·
answered by oklatom 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
The voting act is a political piece of paper that does nothing but ensure peoples right to vote without harassment. We all already have the right to vote per the constitution. This way they can say they support minorities rah rah Sim boom bah!!! Everyone is happy and life goes on just as before. If we make it permanent then they won't get to have their pomp and circumstance.
2006-07-30 16:00:38
·
answer #3
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
It is a question that needs to revisited because the States that the law is applied to come off the list as conditions improve.
2006-07-30 15:59:59
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
Because, Bush knows the black vote usually goes to democrat, and he needs to keep his cronies in office.
2006-07-30 16:31:32
·
answer #5
·
answered by RATM 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Because they want a another big celebration celebrating freedom for what happened in the past. Its stupid I know.
2006-07-30 15:53:08
·
answer #6
·
answered by Mags 3
·
0⤊
0⤋