If Derek Jeter or alez rogriguez made a ball go outside the foul lines what wouldit be called and what are the conquences
2006-07-30 03:49:55 · 10 answers · asked by kool kat 3 in Sports ➔ Baseball
sorry but derek and alex are off the top of my head
2006-07-30 05:36:46 · update #1
I know exactly what you mean.
Sometimes, it is better for a player to let the ball go outside the foul line because if it is inside the field of play, they will have to make a difficult throw to first base to get the batter out. If A-rod or Jeter and sometimes the catcher think that it will be nearly impossible to throw the ball to 1st and beat the batter running to 1st, he will just let the ball go foul so that the batter will not be safe and will have to continue battling it out with the pitcher on the mound.
Also this play happens when the ball is rolling on the grass. As the ball rolls, the batter is already running to 1st base. So if the 3rd baseman or catcher, just let the ball roll outside the foul line, the batter won't be safe and will have to come back to the batter box and continue dwelling it with the pitcher. If the catcher or 3rd basemen, picks up the ball before it rolls foul, and try to get the batter out, most likely the batter is already safe at 1st and the throw is pointless.
2006-07-30 07:22:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
I don't fully understand the question. They cannot make a ball go out of bounds. There are times when someone bunts, or on an infield hit, when they will wait to see if it rolls foul. But that is a risky play more often than not.
2006-07-30 10:55:15 · answer #2 · answered by Fox Paws 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
IF they touch the ball when it is in fair toerritory, it is a fair ball. They would have to throw the runner out from foul territory, just as if the ball was still fair.
2006-07-30 11:14:50 · answer #3 · answered by gg 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you are saying that the player tries catching the ball and is in fair territory, but makes a bad catch bounces off of them or their glove into foul territory, then the ball is fair.
2006-07-30 10:58:48 · answer #4 · answered by n0h0pe 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your question is too general. First of all the player doesn't matter. There are many ways a ball can go foul. You need to be more specific.
2006-07-30 10:55:03 · answer #5 · answered by The Mick "7" 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
IF they touch the ball when it is in fair toerritory, it is a fair ball. They would have to throw the runner out from foul territory, just as if the ball was still fair.
2006-07-30 10:53:15 · answer #6 · answered by bulladawudz 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Foul ball.
2006-07-30 12:45:28 · answer #7 · answered by danceman528 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a foul ball
2006-07-30 11:46:40 · answer #8 · answered by idontkno 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If they already had 2 strikes on them then it would be a foul ball.
If they had no strikes or 1 strike then it would be a strike
2006-07-30 10:54:34 · answer #9 · answered by Auntiem115 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What? They're not the only two baseball players ya know?
2006-07-30 11:17:21 · answer #10 · answered by J-Far 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋