2006-07-29 23:23:47 · 5 answers · asked by Joharvey 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
villian using "eye for and eye" justice to gain his desires, he was seeking cruel retribution for something that was not necessary for his survival
there were alternatives to repay the shylock
Also what person is correct in judging how much revenge is enough? A pound of flesh does not include the secondary effects of bloodloss, vengeful family members, etc.
2006-07-29 23:31:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
He IS NOT a victim as, despite the debt owed to him, he was a wealthy man with nothing substantial to gain from lending money except for more of it.
He IS a villian in the sense that he extended no grace to the merchant. It could be argued that he planned to trick the merchant into the deal in order to kill him. If punishment by death were merely a stipulation of a contract he would have tried to collect money before leveraging retribution. Also, the whole taking of a "pound of flesh" ambiguity appears to be a euphamism for "I will kill you."
2006-07-30 06:30:59 · answer #2 · answered by The Oregon Kid 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Homework help....or answer to question 7.? Come on kid...break open the book already! There isn't a right/wrong answer to those kinds of questions, it's meant to gauge your understanding of the material and ability to form a cognitive answer.
What does he do? Why does he do it? Would you do what he did if the same thing happened to you? Why would you, why wouldn't you?
2006-07-30 06:33:19 · answer #3 · answered by ordinaryenigma 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Why can't he be a little bit of both?
In real life, few things are either/or, they're usually both/and to some extent. (But you'd never know that to listen to the politicians, LOL!)
2006-07-30 06:28:16 · answer #4 · answered by Cyn 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
villain
2006-07-30 06:27:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anry 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋