One thing that has troubled me is the viewpoint that when a man's sexuality is forcibly compromised, he is considered gay, however the aggressor isn't.
If one man wrestled another man down into a compromising position or had his buddies help him, it seems to me that the agressor had a preference for that man in lieu of a woman.
It's much easier to find a woman willing to have sex than it is to fight with an unwilling man. Therefore, why isnt the agressor in the situation considered to be gay? He sure seems to want another man more than the victim does.
2006-07-29 10:18:48 · 14 answers · asked by Joe K 6 in Social Science ➔ Sociology
The agressor might be gay or at least bisexual, but rape has never been and never will be a "sexual" crime. IT's a violent crime and it doesn't reflect sexual desire as much as just cruelness and illness inside someone's head. When you wrestle someone down and they cry out in pain beneath you and you dominate and ravage them, it's a way to make yourself "bigger", "powerful", "a god" - words rapists have used later to describe why they rape. Men have raped 80 year old women upon breaking into their apartments, they have raped babies, they have raped numerous children and women and young men, and it's being minimalized as pent-up sexuality, when really its violence and hate.
2006-07-29 10:23:19 · answer #1 · answered by Maggie 6 · 6⤊ 1⤋
The man who raped the other man is gay, not the victim.
2016-03-27 05:55:54 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The victim is not Gay even though the act was force upon him! The Aggressor is definitely Gay. Any man who prefers stink over pink is Gay!
2006-07-29 10:24:42 · answer #3 · answered by Retarded Dave 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The rapist in this situation is probably acting more out of control and domination issues, or trying to humiliate the other man, than out of sexual urges. And who considers the victim gay? I certainly would not! If anyone did look gay I would think it would be the rapist.
2006-07-29 10:21:56 · answer #4 · answered by advicemom 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i've never heard of the victim to be considered gay because of this type of situation. like you said, if anyone were to likely be gay it would be the perpetrator. if you've heard this, it is likely a response based out of ignorance. like when ignorant ppl say that a women invites a rape because she is wearing revealing clothing which says that she is wanting sex. ppl are needing alot of education when they're that ignorant. it would be tough to be them.
2006-07-29 10:32:01 · answer #5 · answered by gurrrly 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think that man that gets raped is gay. but the man or men that did the raping are gay to me. I think it's worse for a man to get raped by another man then it is for a woman to get raped by a man. I mean it's all sick but taking another man's man hood is awful
2006-07-29 12:15:29 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Where did you get that idea? The victim is NOT considered to be gay...and if that's what you think , then go get yourself an education!!!
2006-07-29 10:22:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is how far homophobia has gotten in this country. That is why prejudice is always bad, because it leads to things like this.
2006-07-30 11:18:13 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Iam Not Sure. But It Is Wierd.
2006-07-29 10:22:23 · answer #9 · answered by mks 7-15-02 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i definitly do not see it that way. i completely think that it would be the agressor that was gay. and if others think that way... :(
2006-07-29 10:23:06 · answer #10 · answered by ring_around_a_rosie 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋