I had a tragedy occur in 05. I stayed living where I was despite not really belonging and I had no job. I took care of everything. Cooking, cleaning, driving everyone everywhere, etc etc. I did what a housekeeper or someone like that would do. I demanded no payment at the time. I was just 'helping out'. I had put 2 bills in my name, but the owner of the house was paying them.
I got kicked out for reasons that are still very unclear(the person just wanted to get rid of any ties to the 'tragedy' I think). But, the problem is that the 2 bills that were in my name(had them shut off as soon as I was able to) are way high. Both of them add up to about $2000. I do not have the money to pay. The person had said he would pay these but thus far has not paid a penny. I have it in writing in some rather mean notes. I was wondering if this would hold up in court.....?
2006-07-29
10:14:12
·
3 answers
·
asked by
ButterflyLJK
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
The written proof are in some nasty notes he left to me while I was in the process of moving out(I had left very civil notes to him). Also, I sent a note with quotes from the notes on it along with copies of the bills to him. He hasn't replied. It's been about 3 months since I moved out. In his notes it says he would pay the bills in my name. Clearly. But, also he signs with only his simple nickname. His full name is not on any of the notes. Would that be something a judge would want. His full name on a document? cuz the guy could easily say that's someone else's name. I just would hate to go to court over this. I'm not a mean person and don't want to do that, but the fact remains that I have these two bills which must be paid.
2006-07-29
12:50:48 ·
update #1