Is husband right in acquiring a landed/movable property in his own name and giving no money to wife for her own expenses out of his salary and business earnings ? They have two children and have been married for eight years.
2006-07-29 02:44:18 · 3 answers · asked by BumThus 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
keep thinking like that son and she'll have you for the lot, by right she is entitled to 50% as she gave up the prospect of a career when she had children and this is all the judge will see...
2006-07-29 02:48:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
NO that is NOT RIGHT. The children have needs too, and they have a right to be taken care of by their parents.
It is simple:
1+1= 2
until the 2 marry, and become 1
then each becomes 1/2 of the 1
then each 1/2 of the 1
are entitled to 1/2 of the stuff.
good luck.
2006-07-29 06:13:46 · answer #2 · answered by redsoxfan11x 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
that little thing, marriage... that men's what is your is hers and what is hers is yours. it's called SHARING! if you want to split everything, then the judge will be sure you get your 50% and she gets 50%... and you'll probably have to pay child support too.
2006-07-29 02:54:12 · answer #3 · answered by more than a hat rack 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋