2006-07-29 02:14:09 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
It doesn't exist because no real mathematician would ever conclude that 2=1 but a scientist would so it must be a scientific proof. Of course they're not really doing math anymore at that point because mathematics is about truth not trying to obscure the truth.
2006-07-29 02:24:13 · answer #1 · answered by PALADIN 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The proof is false. Similar false proofs are 0.999... = 1. See, it all depends on how you look at the numbers 1 and 2. If you think they are 'sufficiently' close, you can deduce that they must be the same number since there is no number inbetween and of course you have the identity of indiscernibles in the theory of metric spaces that will back up your claim.
Of course there are infinitly many numbers between 0.999... and 1 just as there are infinitely many numbers between 1 and 2. Using this kind of logic, you could show that 1 is equal to 10,000,000 because really, it's all a matter of how you perceive the distance between these numbers. Make sense?
2006-07-29 03:34:01 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tom, you can show that 0.99999.... = 1. This is actually true.
First, Let A = 0.99999....
Then, 10 * A = 9.9999....
1) It is elementary to show that
10 * A - A = 9 * A
2) More elementary stuff shows that
~9.9999..... (<-- I added the "~" so the decimals lined up)
- 0.9999....
--------------
9
By 1), 10 * A - A = 9 * A
By 2), 10 * A - A = 9
Therefore, 9 * A = 9.
Dividing both sides by 9 gives you A = 1.
Our assumption was that A = 0.9999....., which lead us to A = 1.
Therefore 0.999.... = 1
This same proof can be used to show any number written in decimal notation can have two representations.
So, 1.9999.... = 2
1.4999.... = 1.5, etc.
2006-07-29 09:13:59 · answer #3 · answered by Dave H 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Proof that 2 equals 1
Let a and b be equal non-zero quantities
a = b
Multiply through by a
a2 = ab
Subtract b2
a2 − b2 = ab − b2
Factor both sides
(a − b)(a + b) = b(a − b)
Divide out (a − b)
a + b = b
Observing that a = b
b + b = b
Combine like terms on the left
2b = b
Divide by the non-zero b
2 = 1
2006-07-29 07:00:29 · answer #4 · answered by Prakash 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I saw this once:
-1 = -1
-1/1 = 1/-1
cross multiplication
1^2 = (-1)^2
square roots to both sides:
1= -1
add three to each side:
1+3 = -1 +3
4 = 2
divide by 2:
4/2 = 2/2
2= 1
2006-07-29 02:31:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
yup, there's about a proof that 2=1, but you can't have 1=2 or else there'll be no other proofs. i forgot the method but it's really complicated and i think there's an a=b and so on..
2006-07-29 06:47:50 · answer #6 · answered by hapie_09 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To Prove. 2=1
Multiply both sides of the given equation by 0.
2 x 0 = 1 x 0
0 = 0
Which is true.
QED.
2006-07-29 03:03:04 · answer #7 · answered by achin_agarwal 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes
Assume 31 = 52
52- 21 = 30
so 1=2 or even 5 =7
2006-07-29 03:12:24 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
So, prevalent Mechanics does not use math? Structural Engineers do no longer use math? prevalent Mechanics and a application on the historic past channel with experts debunked each and every 9/11 conspiracy which you or human beings have, can, or will arise with.
2016-10-01 05:35:21 · answer #9 · answered by morabito 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To desolator814,
a=b implies a^2=b^2,
but a^2=b^2 does not imply a=b.
implication in first case is true, but bi-implication is not true.
To bob h,
division by zero is not defined.
Respectfully
2006-07-29 02:57:58 · answer #10 · answered by K N Swamy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋