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give answer with explaination reasons.

2006-07-28 23:48:00 · 2 answers · asked by star123 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Someone did it already, so I'll just paste the link here:
http://math2.org/math/integrals/more/sec.htm

2006-07-28 23:55:24 · answer #1 · answered by loki_niflheim 3 · 7 1

This is a classic integration "trick" where we multiply by a very interesting version of 1:

(sec(x)+tan(x))/(sec(x)+tan(x))=1.

Then,
\int sec(x)dx=
\int sec(x) * (sec(x)+tan(x))/
(sec(x)+tan(x))dx=
\int (sec(x)tan(x)+sec^2(x))/
(sec(x)+tan(x))dx

Now, notice that the derivative of the denominator is the numerator because d/dx (sec(x))=sec(x)tan(x) and d/d (tan(x))=sec^2(x). So, we let

u=sec(x)+tan(x)

Then, du=(sec(x)tan(x)+sec^2(x))dx.

Subsitution into the original integral gives us

\int (sec(x)tan(x)+sec^2(x))/
(sec(x)+tan(x))dx=
\int 1/u du=
ln |u|+C=
=ln|sec(x)+tan(x)|+C

You can use the same idea to integrate csc(x), too.

2006-07-29 07:00:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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