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2006-07-28 16:12:42 · 20 answers · asked by neetah22 1 in Science & Mathematics Biology

20 answers

No, we are not frogs and determine our sex later. The male's sperm determines the sex of the child.

2006-07-28 16:14:18 · answer #1 · answered by Plasmapuppy 7 · 0 1

The other answers that say you don't start as a female are all correct. A baby's gender is determined as soon as the sperm fertilizes the egg. The 23rd chromosome pair determines gender - XX for female, XY for male.

That being said, sex organs don't form until later in pregnancy, and in fact a fetus's fetal kidneys will eventually become its ovaries or testes. The default state for a lack of correct formation is a female outward appearance, though the reproductive organs (like uterus) may not actually form.

2006-07-28 16:18:25 · answer #2 · answered by Brian L 7 · 0 0

Where do you get your information? As if you have a vagina to start off with in the womb. But then again most men have female tendencies so maybe you're on to something there sweetheart!

2016-03-16 08:02:47 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Yes, from the very begining you have most of the aspects of a female. However, the 'mind' and 'body' develope either male or female. If the body develops how it is suppose to but if your chemicals are all messed up, sometimes your body will appear male but the rest of you will not develope into a male and this is what causes transgender people.

2006-07-28 16:22:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The web site below answers the questions

apparantly embryos are essentially identical until 6 weeks at which point the y chromosome produces testosterone which starts shaping the male features,

those embryos without the Y chromosome (females) develop in females

The web site below elaborates

http://www.juniormagazine.co.uk/module-pagesetter-vewpub-tid-5-pid-80.html

2006-07-28 16:21:44 · answer #5 · answered by lapaul 2 · 0 0

No, as a matter of fact, female reproductive organs develop later than mens. In all technicality, women have more male features before birth. From the begining, the fertilized egg either receives an X or Y chromosome from the father. As your basic organs appear, your body begins to develop your reproductive organs. The balls for men natural decend with time. For women, their reproductive organs don't fully mature till early adolescence, and can reproduce as early as 10 years old. On the other hand, a male can reproduce as early as 7 years old.

To answer chelley's answer above -> you're a moron!

2006-07-28 16:21:06 · answer #6 · answered by FIONEX 3 · 0 1

Female is the default setting of human life. True about chromosomes: female-XX, male-XY. Thing is we all begin with that X chromosome and then chemicals in the mothers body either throw in that extra Y chromosome or not. Some think it is predestined, I'm not here to say, but it is chemically factual.

2006-07-28 16:22:52 · answer #7 · answered by Brandi D 2 · 0 0

Blunt Honesty has the only correct answer I suggest you listen to his wisdom!!

Excerpt form Wikipedia..... A few weeks after fertilization, the initial appearance of the human fetal genitalia is basically feminine: a pair of "urogenital folds" with a small protuberance in the middle, and the urethra behind the protuberance.

In typical fetal development, the presence of the SRY gene causes the fetal gonads to become testes; the absence of it allows the gonads to continue to develop into ovaries. Thereafter, the development of the internal reproductive organs and the external genitalia is determined by hormones produced by fetal gonads (ovaries or testes) and the cells' response to them.

If the fetus has testes, and if the testes produce testosterone, and if the cells of the genitals respond to the testosterone, the outer urogenital folds swell and fuse in the midline to produce the scrotum; the protuberance grows larger and straighter to form the penis; the inner urogenital swellings swell, wrap around the penis, and fuse in the midline to form the penile urethra.

If testosterone is not present, normal female development continues, with the development of a perineal urethra and the formation of a uterus, clitoris and vagina.

The Müllerian ducts, which are paired ducts of the embryo which empty into the cloaca, and which develop into the upper vagina, cervix, uterus and oviducts; in the male they disappear except for the vestigial vagina masculina and the appendix testis.

Because of their common origin in fetal anatomy, a number of male and female anatomical features are said to be homologous; for example, the clitoris and penis are homologous with one another, as are Skene's glands in females and the prostate gland in males.

Most of the time, the result of fetal genital development follows the stereotypical male or stereotypical female development path. However, in a small but significant minority of cases, the path of development follows an intermediate or other pathway, leading to what are called "ambiguous genitalia", one condition of those known as intersexuality.

See congenital anomalies of the genitalia for a list of congenital disorders caused by problems with fetal genital development.

2006-07-28 21:37:48 · answer #8 · answered by Kelly + Eternal Universal Energy 7 · 1 0

No. You actually start off as a generic person. You begin developing the general outward appearance (i.e. nipples) that are present for both sexes. Eventually, the chromosome controlling gender kicks in, and the appropriate sex organs are formed.

2006-07-28 16:13:35 · answer #9 · answered by Blunt Honesty 7 · 2 0

Only *before* conception when all eggs are simply 1 X chromosome. ;)
At the moment thereof, the 'winning' sperm either has an X or Y chromosome. At that moment, your gender is determined.

2006-07-28 16:31:20 · answer #10 · answered by PyroDice 3 · 0 0

yes. Every fetus starts off as inherently female,Then either the x chromozone is introduced or it isnt.

2006-07-28 16:16:30 · answer #11 · answered by michaelmoss30054 4 · 0 0

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