In a court of law, what constitutes sexual abuse between a husband and wife?

Answer 1

Very simply, any sexual act performed with a nonconsenting adult, including rape, incest, sodomy, oral copulation, and penetration of genital or anal opening with a foreign object. The question is not one of marital status but of the victims capacity to and willingness to consent

Answer 2

While a few older (ancient) laws remain on the books, most states have eliminated the spousal exception to such crimes.

Sexual abuse is sexual abuse. Rape means forced sexual intercourse without consent. It doesn't matter if the parties are married or not.

The only remaining exception acknowledged by most courts is implied consent based on past conduct. So, if there is a mutual sexual history between the parties, and one spouse has never said NO, then a jury can find implied consent if the spouse doesn't say NO this time. This isn't limited just to married couples, however, and applies to any long-term sexual relationship where a history of prior voluntary consent is established.

But if consent is withdrawn, or if a spouse says NO, that means the same thing as if anyone else had said it.

Answer 3

Any unwanted and forced sexual acts-----If you say no and he continues or makes you it is considered sexual abuse, this includes sexual intercourse, oral sex, anal sex, or any other sexual activities

NO mean NO---in any case-----just because you are married doesn't mean he has the right to use you for sex----EVER

Answer 4

Well, in the US, if one partner forces the other to have sex. marriage license or not... NO MEANS NO.

Answer 5

if she says not, it is sexual abuse.

Answer 6

agree with all of the above. no means no