English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2006-07-28 06:03:36 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance Small Business

7 answers

A good man would not have a slave. This was decided 240 years ago by a big *** war we call the American Civil War.

Wikipedia it.

2006-07-28 06:07:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Owning a slave would preclude one from being a "good man".

2006-07-28 06:07:27 · answer #2 · answered by Wounded duckmate 6 · 0 0

If our disaffected black babies in u.s. in basic terms knew how Muhammed veiwed black human beings, and how Arabs do, they might unquestionably reconsider their ideas approximately Islam, in a extensive hurry. "Black Muslim" is between the main silly oxymorons i think of i've got ever heard, and yet those toddlers take it very, very heavily. it extremely isn't any longer something yet opportunists taking great component approximately racial unrest for the duration of this u . s . a . to instruct those toddlers against parents and u . s . a ., and that's an outrage against God.....

2016-12-14 15:29:16 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes, if you r royalty.But not sure if you can use it nowadays - its illigal, unless your slave wants to do it himself for you.

2006-07-28 06:37:51 · answer #4 · answered by yporshneva 1 · 0 0

A "good man" doesn't enslave anyone.

2006-07-28 06:07:59 · answer #5 · answered by SuzeY 5 · 0 0

I take it that you are offering yourself for this role. If so, you may wish to let us know what you offer. ;-)

2006-07-31 18:56:56 · answer #6 · answered by Ѕємι~Мαđ ŠçїєŋŧιѕТ 6 · 0 0

You volunteering?

2006-07-28 06:07:45 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers