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2006-07-27 23:20:11 · 6 answers · asked by Chuck Dhue 4 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

6 answers

I have a lot to say on this topic, but I'll try to be brief.

I assume what you mean by "subjective" is that people don't follow the rules that you've read in grammar books. The problem is, these rules were mostly created in the 1700s, when the English language had already been around for a few hundred years. So people weren't going to suddenly stop speaking English the way they did just because of some book.

Also, there are many differences between the dialects of English, but some people think that differences are bad for some reason, so they try to pretend that they don't exist, or claim that they shouldn't exist.

As a linguist, I believe (like all linguists) that langauge is highly systematized and patterned. If the language doesn't fit a pattern we know about, chances are we just haven't discovered the true pattern yet. In fact, discovering the patterns in language is what the science of linguistics is all about.

2006-07-31 18:38:54 · answer #1 · answered by drshorty 7 · 0 0

It would have been helpful if you had been more specific. Of course there are rules, but all spoken languages evolve and change, and what was considered substandard yesterday may well become accepted by tomorrow. Look at "momentarily" and "hopefully," once considered substandard in the way we use them now, but accepted today as standard English. The distinction between "who" and "whom" is rapidly disappearing. I could go on and on.

I applaud precision in the use of language. But all spoken languages tend toward increasing simplicity over time. Fine distinctions are lost. We can deplore this tendency, or we can choose to celebrate the originality and creativity that make English the lively and amusing language it is.

2006-07-28 12:52:19 · answer #2 · answered by keepsondancing 5 · 0 0

Correct English grammar is an exact science.

2006-07-28 06:26:28 · answer #3 · answered by wollemi_pine_writer 6 · 0 0

I think you meant subjunctive? I agree, English grammar is terribly subjunctive.

2006-08-01 03:24:54 · answer #4 · answered by GoingNoWhereFast 5 · 0 0

I guess it depends where you came from. Grammar is most emphasis and proper in Britain. In US, we use too many slang, such as "aint" in stead of "arent"

2006-07-28 12:22:28 · answer #5 · answered by piyo006 3 · 0 0

Because it is as diverse as those who use it & we tend to make things our own...

2006-08-01 01:45:20 · answer #6 · answered by kat4use 3 · 0 0

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