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2006-07-27 00:13:01 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Politics

I am very glad to see that my question has made at least a few people think again.

2006-07-27 00:38:14 · update #1

13 answers

Yes you are right. Most of the countries in Asia which you see are liberated by Japan. Before that what was here and who were controlling that?

Other than what Japanese Imperial Army did that is another story your question is a fact.

2006-07-27 00:23:13 · answer #1 · answered by Ari 7 · 2 1

No.

Japan slaughtered millions of Chinese civilians in much the same indiscriminate way that the Nazis treated the Jews, Gypsies and Slavs. The colonial powers in the area returned after the war.

Yes, there were instant independance movements in French Indochina (Vietnam, Cambodia, Laos), but not in the British Territories of Malaya (Malaysia and Singapore) and Burma (now Myanmar). The independance movement in India had been going on for some 20 years prior to the outbreak of war.

What WW2 did higlight, however, was that the colonial powers couldn't actually do the one thing that the inhabitants of these places expected of them: they couldn't protect them (although, in the case of France, things may have been different had they not been defeated so quickly in Europe by the Germans).
The exception to this was India, but the men fighting the Japanese from the Indian borders were Indian, not British. In fact, the war would have gone very differently if some 2 million Indian soldiers hadn't been fighting (as the British Indian Army) in North Africa, and then Franc eand Italy. The war in Africa would have been lost, but Britain would still have maintained naval superiorit in the Mediterranean and Atlantic (which was actually won with relative ease - Britain was by far the greatest naval power on earth at the time, and had been for some 350 years).

But I digress. No, Japan did not libeate anyone from anything. They enslaved, oppressed, tortured, imprissoned and executed the people wherever they went.
However, the faliure of the Colonial powers to adequately defend the borders instilled in the natives a fresh (and absolutely justified) yearning for self governence.

So, indirectly, the Japanese incursion into the Asian mainland brought an end to the colonial era (a good thing). But they should not be credited with liberating anyone. They were on a mission of conquest themselves, and simply sought to usurp the Europeans as overlords.

2006-07-27 00:32:29 · answer #2 · answered by Entwined 5 · 0 0

In a sense, yes. They became the colonial rulers. However, it is interesting that once Japan surrendered, France re-took over Vietnam and once again became the colonial master. The Dutch once again claimed Indonesia, etc. Your question is a good one. In a simple way yes, Japan "liberated" Asia from Western rule for a while, until they were kicked out.

2006-07-27 00:24:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes, out of the frying pan and into the fire. The Japanese replaced one form of hegemony with another, worse, form.

If Japan had not tried to create the Greater East-Asia Co-Prosperity Sphere then I would guess that western colonialism would have lasted longer than it did. I'm not sure which would have been better, there may have been wars and people may have died in an alternate history too.

2006-07-27 00:32:21 · answer #4 · answered by Wyld Stallyns 4 · 0 0

i dunno if they prefer this so called "liberation".. they did indeed chase away the western powers.. but the way they did it was worst than the colonisation of the western powers in asia. although it was just a short period of time. the devastation of economy and lives caused by the japanese to the asian nation is far worse than the 100 of years of occupation by the western forces. the answer is that yes.. the japanese did somewhat liberate the asians from the western colonialism.. but the question is that do they want to be so called liberated by the Japs? I suppose not.. especially the way the japanese did.

2006-07-27 00:26:40 · answer #5 · answered by Syed A 3 · 0 0

No, they did not. They did however set into motion a series of event which eventually lead to the liberation. It is called WWII. When the war was over the colonial governments could no longer afford to keep the colonies. Eventually they were liberated by the same government who held them. Our mistake in Vietnam not withstanding.

2006-07-27 00:19:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the eastern objective in WW2 replaced into to regulate Asia. it must be claimed now sixty 5 years later that they liberated Asia style western colonialilism. in fact maximum international places of Asia were liberated by their own efforts with help from the u . s . and NATO.

2016-10-15 06:25:34 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Japanese threat did help India become free of British occupation as they had to strike a deal with Indians... so as not have mid war rebellion. Though you cant credit Jampanese with having liberated India.

2006-07-27 00:53:15 · answer #8 · answered by boogie man 4 · 0 0

good question,I know china and Japan hate each other,hong Kong was occ.by England,Russia,had a war in 1900 with japan so good question

2006-07-27 00:22:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Their action of fighting the colonialists cannot be construed as liberation as they wanted to perpetuate their regime, whcih people in Myanmar and China explain with horror.
VR

2006-07-27 00:30:36 · answer #10 · answered by sarayu 7 · 0 0

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