u must find a patern
first derivative: e^-x - xe^-x
second der. : -e^-x - e^-x + xe^-x
third: e^-x + e^-x + e^-x - xe^-x
forth: -e^-x - e^-x - e^-x - e^-x + xe^-x
u got the pattern ?
nth derivative: (-1)^(n+1) * (n)(e^-x) + (-1)^n * xe^-x
find the 1000th derivative
which is -1000(e^-x) + xe^-x
2006-07-26 16:24:47
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answer #1
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answered by ___ 4
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The first derivative of (Ax + B) e^(Cx) is, by the product rule,
(Ax + B) C e^(Cx) + A e^(Cx) = (A C x + (A + B C)) e^(Cx)
As you differentiate again and again, you can see that the exponent in the e^... part will always be Cx, so the form will be
(something x + something else) e^(Cx)
with the original triple A, B, C at n=0 becomes
A C, A + B C, C at n=1
(A C) C, (A C) + (A + B C) C, C at n=2
= A C^2, 2 A C + B C^2, C at n=2
(A C^2) C, (A C^2) + (2 A C + B C^2) C, C at n=3
= A C^3, 3 A C^2 + B C^3, C at n=3
You can prove using the principle of mathematical induction that the n-th derivative of (A x + B) e^(Cx) is:
( (A C^n) x + (n A C^(n-1) + B C^n) ) e^(Cx)
For the 1000-th derivative of x e^-x just plug in A = 1, B = 0, C = -1, and n = 1000 to get: (x - 1000) e^-x
2006-07-26 16:38:22
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answer #2
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answered by ymail493 5
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h2 has the correct answer, now here is an explanation to answer your question:
From what i remember, and its been a long time, its the first term times the derivitive of the second, plus the second times the derivitive of the 1st.
1st
d(xe^-x) = -xe^-x + e^-x
2nd
d(-xe^-x + e^-x) = xe^-x - e^-x - e^-x = xe^-x -2e^-x
3rd
d(xe^-x -2e^-x) = -xe^-x + e^-x +2e^-x = -xe^-x + 3e^-x
And so the even derivitives have an odd multiplier on the e^-x term., and the even derivities have a positive xe^-x term, also the order of the derivitive is the same as the constant multiplier, and so by inspection the answer is:
xe^-x -1000e^-x
2006-07-26 17:12:38
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answer #3
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answered by SnowXNinja 3
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HYPOTHESIS: the n-th derivative is (x - n)e^(-x)
PROOF BY INDUCTION:
it is clearly true that the zeroeth derivative is xe^(-x) = (x - 0)e^(-x)
suppose the statement is true for a certain value of n
then the (n+1)-th derivative is the derivative of
(x - n)e^(-x)
which is
(x - n)e^(-x) - e^(-x) = (x - [n+1]) e^(-x)
proving that the statement is also true for n+1.
END OF PROOF
Therefore the answer is (x - 1000) e^(-x)
2006-07-26 21:04:53
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answer #4
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answered by dutch_prof 4
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Don't fret over 1000th derivative
Just open your book and know Leibnitz theorem
2006-07-26 21:10:40
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answer #5
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answered by Jatta 2
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plug in values of p and h take organic log of the two aspects use residences of logs to seperate the proper component with ln e ln e = a million so which you will subtract the ln fee w/o the ok and divide the ok fee and bam
2016-11-03 02:13:39
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answer #6
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answered by ? 4
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differentiate it three times. You should see a pattern.
2006-07-26 16:18:08
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answer #7
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answered by alchemthis 2
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I'm sure you will get a lot of answeres.
2006-07-26 16:15:48
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answer #8
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answered by bradlitazole 2
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- 1000 e ^ -x + x e ^ -x
2006-07-26 16:23:17
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answer #9
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answered by h2 2
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