how were the Indian populations different from the European societies in the pre-colonial era (1600-1750)?

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how were the Indian populations different from the European societies in the pre-colonial era (1600-1750)?

I really need help and I couldnt find it online. can anyone help me?

2006-07-26 12:24:23 · 2 answers · asked by blue knight 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture

2 answers

You can make a better argument if you saw that both cultures were very similar. Both explained what was going on through religion and philosophy, both were warlike, both believed in ethics, etc.

2006-07-26 12:40:33 · answer #1 · answered by The Witten 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋

It's probably in your textbook.

Do your own homework, or you'll never amount to anything.

2006-07-26 19:28:19 · answer #2 · answered by frankiquilts 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋