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I mean, why French law and no any other country's? French law seems to be more recognised and significant in the law's world, can anyone tell me why?

2006-07-26 12:21:13 · 10 answers · asked by Rianna 1 in Education & Reference Higher Education (University +)

I know other countries' laws are important too, but there are many separate degrees on just French law (and no other countries'), I'm just wondering why...

2006-07-26 12:26:27 · update #1

10 answers

As far as international finance and commerce are concerned you will find that English and New York laws are the most favoured laws to be used by banks and financial institutions. Both are common law jurisdictions with lots of precedent so provide a greater certainly of interpretation than civil law jurisdictions such as France.

I imagine that the ACADEMIC interest in French law relates partly in the fact that it is based on the Roman law system, it is one of the oldest civil law codes in Europe and has significance in relation to EU law.

2006-07-26 15:29:54 · answer #1 · answered by hoss 3 · 1 0

Well, what is called "common law" is law that is the British Model. Common law is the basis for law in many of the former British colonies, including the United States. Another major law system is the Napoleonic code, or the French model, predominant in former French colonies.

2006-07-26 17:32:43 · answer #2 · answered by aueagle2006 2 · 0 0

because french law is based on roman law, like most european countries (aside from the uk). it is also codified, in theory making it easier to work out what's what instead of having to trawl through all the common law that exists. and if you're talking about why it's easier to find an english and french law degree, then that's because you have to spend half the time in france, and i guess more english people have studied french as a second language

2006-07-26 13:03:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The French pride themselves upon being just in their persuit of liberty. The French Revolution reeks of this, even their kings and monarchy were put to death because they had not been law-abiding. Ever since then, the French have been eager to use themselves as examples of the way the law should operate. Perhaps they are trying to hide the fact that they have not won a battle since Napoleon by over-exaggerating their successes in law. This is only my opinion however, please form your own.

2006-07-26 12:46:29 · answer #4 · answered by coffeedrinker 1 · 0 1

As someone else pointed out it was Napoleon Bonaparte who enacted what we see as modern laws and courts. However almost every country has put their own particular "spin" on their form of law. For example, in Scotland there are three options at trial; guilty, not guilty, and not proven. The last is when everyone "knows" that someone is guilty BUT the state has not proved their case.

2006-07-26 12:36:30 · answer #5 · answered by doc 6 · 0 0

The question is very hard to understand. Exactly where, and how is French law more recognised? I mean outside of France, if that is what you mean.

2006-07-26 12:38:18 · answer #6 · answered by Vince M 7 · 0 0

ENGLAND - that is illegitimate to die in the houses of Parliament QUEBEC - Margarine ought to no longer be an identical coloration as butter. MARSHALLTOWN, IOWA - Horses are forbidden to eat hearth hydrants MEMPHIS, TENNESSEE - that is illegitimate for a lady tocontinual a vehicle except there's a guy both operating or walking in the front of it waving a pink flag to warn drawing near motorists and pedestrians. TULSA- OKLAHOMA - that is a criminal offense to open a soda bottle without the supervision of a qualified engineer. ARKANSAS - Arkansas River can upward thrust no larger than to the major highway bridge in Little Rock. TENNESSEE - that is illegitimate to shoot any pastime except whales from a transferring motor vehicle.

2016-11-26 01:37:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

well it could be that many of the laws that are in existence today were enstated by Napoleon Bonaparte, who is perhaps the greatest leader of France. he was among the first in Europe to promote the concept of "all men are equal before the law." this was radical in France, yet very effective.

2006-07-26 12:26:38 · answer #8 · answered by brainlessbandit 5 · 0 0

It's not.British law is the worldwide model for justice(well,when it worked it was)

2006-07-26 12:24:45 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Are we talking about the European union here.

Banana's can't be too bendy.
Strawberry's must be of a certain shape or size.
etc.....

2006-07-26 12:31:48 · answer #10 · answered by JeffE 6 · 0 0

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