If it is, then it's not morality.
2006-07-26 03:28:28
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answer #1
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answered by Keither 3
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To paraphrase nsearchofstars:
Morality is determined by the majority AND by the strong, i.e. in possession of political power. From time immemorial, those who were strong always rule. They lay down the laws for people to follow, and more often than not, the moral codes or laws are biased.
Hammurabi's Code, for example, put down the infamous 'an eye for an eye' rule. But this was exclusive for those within the same social class, because if an upper-class person took out an eye from a lower-class person, that upper-class person need only to pay a certain fine.
Although the morality nowadays are more relaxed, that does not mean bias is out of the picture. If the majority of the social community abhor alternative lifestyle (gay/lesbian) anyone who exhibits such tendency would certainly be condemned. Like it or not, morality is always determined by the majority AND those who are in power.
Those with religion can take comfort that their respective religions always stress on the importance of proper morality. I have yet to find a religion that supports any sort of violence, minor or major.
2006-07-26 03:25:44
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answer #2
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answered by jarod_jared 3
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only if you're lame as hell.
but really, no because that is not what morality is defined to be. So you can say "do most people attempt to replace morality with the rule of the majority?" but technically the "life as popularity contest of ideas" thing is not what is meant by morality.
but, assuming that i know what you mean, yes it's true, but I think that it really comes from the fact that moral questions are terribly difficult ones, and it probably wouldn't make sense to have each and every person confront the problem from the beginning. I think that philosophers should go around figuring out problems, and then spend their lives convincing people of power that basically society should be indoctrinated into them.
Don't get me wrong, autonomy is the highest gift, the ideal, but lets get realistic.
anyways there should also be training on how to make decisions. clearly that is the chief thing.
2006-07-26 02:47:50
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answer #3
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answered by rainphys 2
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in a sociological sense morality is indeed determined by the majority and in many cases the elite few who hold political power. In any case morality is simply an expression of a societies standard values and norms. Every society has a different moral structure. if most people believe in a social law then it also represented as a social norm and eventually introduces itself into the peoples moral structure
2006-07-26 02:43:25
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answer #4
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answered by Raise Your Fist 1
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No, what a society deams to be moral or immoral is determined by the majority. Morality can only be determined by logical argumentation.
2006-07-26 02:48:20
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answer #5
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answered by Batman 3
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Well....if you're basing it on historical records...yeah. Not unless the minority is composed of rich, powerful and influential people who don't give a **** what the majority wants. Time, and history have shown that a strong but poor majority will always bow down to a small but rich and powerful minority. I'll give a clue of this reality....there's a country in Southeast Asia....archipelago...."democratic" according to it's current leaders....but is currently ruled by 30% of the rich and elite (businessmen, lawyers, politicians, high-class but influential prostitutes, etc.)...the 70% are the poor but apathetic majority...they know what the problem is....they also know how to stop it.....but....they'd rather go abroad, earn a lot of money, apply for a foreign citizenship, petition their loved ones....and kiss their f****** homeland goodbye. The reason for this....these people have lost their nationalistic pride....sad but true.
2006-07-26 02:48:32
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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In terms of establishing cultural norms and taboos, typically the dominant group, whether it constitutes the majority of a population or not, determines morality.
2006-07-26 03:01:36
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Ultimate morality is determined by God. But he is only one, so does that make him a minority? but wait, he fills the universe so does that make him a majority?
2006-07-26 03:16:58
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answer #8
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answered by skypiercer 4
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No. By the strong. i.e. Victorian morality.
2006-07-26 02:39:06
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answer #9
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answered by McDreamy 4
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Once every four years. We have another shot at getting it right, coming up shortly. What are the odds?
2006-07-26 05:48:46
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answer #10
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answered by diasporas 3
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