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kinda makes sense?

2006-07-25 12:58:39 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

thanks for answering
dadd-0, i think the USA is a particularly noteworthy result of the said invasions.

2006-07-25 13:26:57 · update #1

9 answers

no, it was considered colonialism. Its expansion, not always through military means though. Trade and alliances were the foundation of many overseas colonies, though yes, warfare was the prime decider of the possesor of overseas territories.
World War I was so named because it was the first of the two major armed conflicts of the twentieth century. It is impossible to discern the first world war, for certainly empires in Europe controlling vast swaths of the globe have occured continuously over the past five hundred years.
And the United States was in fact an emerging colonial quasi-empire by the mid nineteenth century, expanding ever westward, invading Mexico several times, invading Hawaii, overthrowing the Hawaiian monarchy in the act, seizing Spanish possesions (The Phillipines, Puerto Rico and Cuba) and ruling them as American overseas colonies. The Americans were also adamant in their attempts to take over Canada as their own, starting the War of 1812, which they lost, along with much of early Washington DC after opening fire on British troops carrying the flag of truce into the city. Plus the extensive trade the US had in slaves, don't forget.
In my opinion, the first world war would have been the Seven Years War, fought across Europe, the Americas, across the seas, and involved all but a few of the European states. It was through this war that Britain aquired France's Canadian possesions, which would, through the Quebec Bill and the rising taxes needed to rebuild the British treasury, lead to the American Revolution.

2006-07-25 15:09:24 · answer #1 · answered by Eugene Zappier 2 · 0 0

It is a very good question. I think its because it was done piecemeal, one country at a time over a long period of time, with no alliances, with each European country involved competing to create an overseas empire. In a sense you could say that militarily war was exported and transformed into economic rivalry. There were major wars between major European powers in the period - the Napoleonic wars and the Crimean War - but these for the most part were confined to the European land mass.

2006-07-25 20:26:50 · answer #2 · answered by sleepyredlion 4 · 0 0

The Seven Years' War (1756-1763) was in many ways a 'world war'. It pitted the major powers of the day-Britain, France, Russia, Prussia, Austria etc.-against one another and the battles took place in Europe, North America (where it was known as the French and Indian War), the Caribbean, Africa, and India.

2006-07-26 00:23:02 · answer #3 · answered by rich153fish 3 · 0 0

Because so many different countries were not involved. Yes, while at the tiem in that area of the world, Europe was considered the entire world, they just didn't name it that. WW1 was actually named 'The Great War' until WW2 came along, and it was greater.

What's in a name...

2006-07-25 20:02:26 · answer #4 · answered by TwilightWalker97 4 · 0 0

That a good question, but I think it was not called that because the concept of World War had not been thought up yet.

2006-07-25 20:01:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

These "colonial wars" were many relatively small conflicts. Both World Wars were made up of huge (in terms of population) alliances and were fought in many countries. May God bless and keep you.

2006-07-25 20:21:46 · answer #6 · answered by blowry007 3 · 0 0

because all the countries that the european armies took over, didn't have any weapons to match the european armies, and therefore the natives of those countries were terrorists.

2006-07-25 20:05:22 · answer #7 · answered by mad john 3 · 0 0

didn't have anything to do with the united states.

2006-07-25 20:22:30 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

because that was colonization and not total war...

2006-07-25 20:23:16 · answer #9 · answered by greaterrome 2 · 0 0

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