2006-07-25 09:35:08 · 20 answers · asked by ALAN B 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Trivia
Yes it is because it has nothing to do with the ability to hear of the people who are the defendants or prosecuting, it has to do with those who are in the Jury or the Judge who can hear, and if they are deaf then the have a interpreter and in the american sign language hearing and deaf are the same with the only difference that deaf is the same as hearing witht he added closed sign at the end.
2006-07-25 09:47:38 · answer #1 · answered by Perhaps I love you more 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If a hearing person asks a deragatory question does it make him an idiot?
Yes. I work with the deaf and they are professional people and real citizens. Are you?
2006-07-25 09:40:52 · answer #2 · answered by jonesywonesy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes
2006-07-25 09:40:46 · answer #3 · answered by Boris 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would say yes, but the deaf person might be able to object and appeal any decisions made
2006-07-25 09:39:22 · answer #4 · answered by Scotch 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but it's kind of mean. They are rubbing it in.
If I were deaf and lose, I would file for discrimination.
But what should they call it? A caning?
2006-07-25 09:39:00 · answer #5 · answered by Ejsenstejn 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes
2006-07-25 09:37:57 · answer #6 · answered by AzaC 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its called a hearing aide.
They bring a hearing ear dog.
2006-07-26 13:42:24 · answer #7 · answered by ••Mott•• 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Bdum! Tshhhh!
2006-07-25 09:39:08 · answer #8 · answered by schmagum 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I bet you get on peoples nerves at work. Yes?
2006-07-25 09:39:04 · answer #9 · answered by wiz 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you like your words.have you heard about the night club for dyslexics...instead of E ing off their heads their off their F ING faces
2006-07-25 09:39:35 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋