English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

The Q asked is the headline for this more complete Q: Does the difference between Marxist & Capitalist Economics boil down to this one Q: Who gets to share the profits on the outputs from the human work performed?

2006-07-25 09:25:28 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Economics

8 answers

No the difference is between Big Government and Small Government. Marx believed that the government had the power, and that if you worked for the government, then you had power. While Capitalists view the power as being given to workers, owners, and corporations.

" ... Philosophy and its philosophical conception of history, but later became mixed with very practical and material questions concerning the rising workers' movement of the 19th century. Marxism's philosophical roots were thus commonly explained as derived from three sources: English political economy, French socialism, and German idealist philosophy. " <1>

English political economy saw "Land" as the source of all wealth; while Adam Smith (capitalist) viewed "Labor" as the source of wealth.

French socialism implies the abolition of markets, capital, and labor as a commodity. While capitalism reveres markets, capital, and labor.

German Idealism was inspired by atheist Hegel "... Impersonal mind or spirit (German geist) was thought to have brought forth the universe in accordance with reasonable, logical thought. All individuals were said to be part of the overall universal, which always operated in accordance with a rigid three-step sequence. This pattern was named dialectical, after the usual way that dialogues, conversations or arguments were conducted. A thesis was proposed, which inevitably led to a countering antithesis. These were always resolved in a synthesis." Many criticize the "Human Rights" <2> issues steaming from this German Idealization.

2006-07-25 10:01:46 · answer #1 · answered by Giggly Giraffe 7 · 0 0

don't be attentive to with regard to the Mormon theology however the Aaron priesthood exchange into with regard to the Levites on a daily basis and ceremonial selections interior the temple. The Melchizedek Priesthood exchange right into a particular priesthood and alter into spoken approximately basically some cases interior the previous testomony and the e book of Hebrew. Gen 14:18, Psa one hundred ten:4 and Heb 5:6-10, 6:20 and 7:a million-10.

2016-11-02 23:48:34 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

--Marxism is based on the ideology that everyone shares everything. That means economically that Doctors get the same as ditch diggers.
Capitalism is based on the better you do the more you have. Doctors go to school longer, work harder, and have greater responsibilties than Ditch Diggers. Therefore the Doctor earns a Mercedes Benz and the Ditch Digger earns a Toyota Tacoma.

2006-07-25 09:32:31 · answer #3 · answered by raiderking69 5 · 0 0

It's not so much WHO gets the profits, although in practice its been owners of Capital versus the State (although the State is the defacto owner of Capital), but rather whether what's given the workers is deemed fair.

This sounds like a need for cowmentary.

Marxism: You have two cows. The state seizes them in the name of the proletariat and you are paid minimum wage to milk them, and then buy the milk from the State.

Socialism: You have two cows, but your bourgeois pig is overthrown.

Leninism: You have two cows. The State seizes them in the name of the Proletariat and deports you to Siberia.

Communism: You have two cows. The proletariat seize the cows and shoot you, you capitalist pig filth dog.

Laissez-Faire Capitalism: You have two cows. You hire a migrant child to milk the cows and pay her $0.40 a day.

Austrian School Capitalism: You have two cows. You milk the cows for your family, sell futures on the milk on the open market, and sell the cows for slaughter.

2006-07-26 02:48:19 · answer #4 · answered by Veritatum17 6 · 0 0

Pure capitalism means 100% free market, pure socialism means 100% economic equality.

Obviously neither can exist in pure form, rather nature oscillates between mixes of the two extremes in varying degrees. For example, the government has grown from 12% in 1930 to 44% of the economy:

http://mwhodges.home.att.net/summary.htm#govt

Generally speaking, economic systems trend towards socialism until they revert due to inefficiency of capital allocation and production under socialism:

http://jasonhommelforum.com/forums/showthread.php?t=17&highlight=socialism

2006-07-25 11:10:27 · answer #5 · answered by Shelby M 1 · 0 0

I don't think so. Reagan said it best (this may not be an exact quote): "All societies are capitalist. The question is who controls the capital."

2006-07-25 14:57:28 · answer #6 · answered by ZepOne 4 · 0 0

No. The real question to answer the question is..

How do you get people to work for profits when there are none?

That is Marxism. No profit, no desire to succeed. No work, No profit!

That is why people on welfare aren't driven to find jobs...they don't have to!

2006-07-25 09:29:58 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

galbraith said it best....communism (marxism) is the exploitation of man by man, capitalism is the exact opposite.

2006-07-25 10:21:02 · answer #8 · answered by marabierto1961 5 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers