2006-07-25 08:51:44 · 5 answers · asked by The null set 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
...is this question anti-Semetic?
2006-07-25 08:52:29 · update #1
it is anti-semetic if you use the comment to slander hurt or cause any damages tword the semetic race!
2006-07-25 08:55:21 · answer #1 · answered by Spike 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It seems like everything you say against the Jewish people is antisemetic. Are they above being criticized for anything? I have no problem with Jewish people but don't like Israel's stand on things. Am I anti-semetic?
2006-07-25 08:59:00 · answer #2 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since this can be a very subject area, for a statement or act to be considered genuinely biased or derogatory to any group, I believe that it must be such that any reasonable observer would agree that it is biased or derogatory.
2006-07-25 08:59:53 · answer #3 · answered by williegod 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To use "anti-Semitic" in the sense of "against Jews" is in itself wrong, because not all Semites are Jews: the Arabs, for instance, are Semites, too. So calling Arabs who are against Jews "anti-Semitic" is nonsensical.
Acts or statements are genuinely anti-Semitic when they are aimed against the Semitic race in general, or against members of that race because they belong to that race.
2006-07-25 09:51:30 · answer #4 · answered by sauwelios@yahoo.com 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Any statement that is negative toward the Jewish race or Israel is antisemitic. Any action to harm a Jew or Israeli because they are Jewish is antisemitic. Your question is not antisemitic.
2006-07-25 08:57:25 · answer #5 · answered by El Pistolero Negra 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋