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gravitational force between them. Which means that any two objects in the universe pose forces on eachother. Just because the forces are neglegable doesn't mean they don't exist. Besides, Einsteins thoery of general relativity shows gravity bending space-time. Now the Q still stands: does the atoms mass produce the gravitational effect or does the gravitational effect produce the atoms mass?

2006-07-24 23:46:04 · 7 answers · asked by trblfor2 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

7 answers

I guess that makes me wrong.

2006-07-24 23:50:55 · answer #1 · answered by amy24h7w 3 · 0 0

First of all, the equation you typed in the question has a typo... it's like this: Fg=Gm1m2/r^2 , the distance is squared...

Anyway, what happens is that both atoms are attracted to each other, just as everything that has mass is attracted to every other thing that has mass.That attraction is what we call "gravity".

It does not ocurr the other way around. An effect does not create mass. Mass is not created nor destroyed. It is just a measure of how much there is of something.

That bending of space of Einstein's theory is a way to explain what is behind gravity, and why it behaves that way. It says that mass does not really act on other masses, it just alters the space around it, and this has an *effect* on other masses resulting in apparent magical measurable attraction between them.

2006-07-25 03:25:44 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Atoms mass produces gravitational effect and not vice versa.

2006-07-25 01:01:37 · answer #3 · answered by Ash 2 · 0 0

Do you think their is the logical fallacy here of x causes y but y is not always caused by x?

Are you looking for other ways to make a gravitational field?

If I knew (which I might), I wouldn't tell you, because this could be sold at a very high price!!

2006-07-25 00:01:19 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

None, every planet has its own gravitational effect. So on every planet you will still have the same mass, but the gravity will be different.

2006-07-24 23:52:49 · answer #5 · answered by female_lizzzzzard 3 · 0 0

hi Banjaran,whilst some physique is calling a question in this sight,meaning it quite is not inner maximum from now on and 2d you're sharing your opinion with guy or woman,you at the instant are not forcing any physique to have faith on your answer.So there is not something incorrect.Have a extreme-high quality day and extreme-high quality week end.

2016-12-10 14:01:32 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

You are asking a question to which no satisfactory answer exists. Until we know exactly what causes gravity, your first postulation can not be proven, which means your second postulation might or might not be correct.

2006-07-24 23:51:48 · answer #7 · answered by gadjitfreek 5 · 0 0

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