If the country that's freedom is a threat to the freedom of the first country then yes.
If the country's freedoms are being exploited and used to distroy and hurt it then yes.
I know a country that people were free, they were able to go anywhere they wanted without question or fear. They were able to go to the airport and get on a plane and go anywhere within the country without question or suspicion.
Then one day people came into that country , learned how to fly airplanes (because in this county i speak of anyone can do and learn anything they desire) then they hi-jacked airplanes and crashed them into buildings killing 4000 people ( 13 of them were my friends.)
It seems to me, that the free country in this story can morally go do anything they can to eliminate that threat to its remaining 300 million people. - don't you?
2006-07-25 00:00:46
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answer #1
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answered by onion 3
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Wow, I wish more questions like this were asked (both here and offline).
Freedom is a very broad term.
Many times throughout history powerful countries have usurped the freedom of self-determination from a weaker nation's people in order to get cheap labor and resources. These powerful nations use the term of freedom in a different way, in order to gain wealth, they excuse their belligerence by touting freedom of enterprise, or freedom from terrorism, or freedom from a tyrant.
When the end result is the freedom of the wealthy to make more money, and the freedom of souls from bodies coming from the rest of us, it is right to question the morality of such pursuits. I say absolutely no! A thousand times no!
2006-07-25 01:02:49
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answer #2
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answered by Testika Filch Milquetoast 5
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Absolutely not. A country can persue it's freedom by means of much civilized and better ways than by attacking the other country's freedom. I don't think anyone can justify that.
2006-07-25 01:06:32
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answer #3
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answered by afiasan 3
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Freedom is an illusion. In order to secure it for some you must take it away from others or all as the case may be.
2006-07-25 00:39:16
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answer #4
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answered by LORD Z 7
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For American citizens it seems so, for the rest of the world no. Also the Jews have good experience doing so and not feeling bad about it
2006-07-25 00:35:11
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answer #5
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answered by Catalonia is not Spain 2
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your question suggests it is totally immoral. how can a country be morally good when being immoral to another country?
2006-07-25 00:05:51
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answer #6
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answered by shankari n 3
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I live in America and I don't think so.
2006-07-25 12:59:43
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answer #7
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answered by usa_grl15 4
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Only if you are American it seems
2006-07-24 23:48:07
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answer #8
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answered by toxethh 2
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neverrrrrrr
2006-07-24 23:46:34
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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