In the 2 world war countries that where ocupied by the Nazies had resistence group such as the French resistence who killed Germans because the Germans occupied their land England and the USA supplied there resistrence groups with arms. So if it is ailright for Eruopean countries that are ocupied by a foregn power to kill people belonging to that power why is it not ok for Arabs to kill jews who are occuping their land. Also if Western countries can supply occupied Europen countries with arms to kill the occupiers why can not Iran and Syria like wise supply arms to the people who are occupied
2006-07-24
00:40:34
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6 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy