Did the Holocost violate the Jew and christians 6th commandment?

Question

Some christans claim that the 6th commandement does dont mean "thou shall not kill" but instead "thou shall not murder" this translation now appears in many christain bibles Murder means the unlawfull killing of someone. Now under Nazi Germanies laws it was lawful to kill jews gypsies slavs homosexuals and the menatally ill. So for those christians and Jews that claim that the 6th commandment should read "thou shall not murder" does this mean that the holocost was not in violation of Gods laws because it was lawfull under a countries laws . If they claim that it was in viloation of Gods laws how can they then claim that a country that has laws authorising capital punishment or the lawfull killing in war is like wise not disobeying Gods 6th commandment

Answer 1

It says, "Thou shalt not kill"...the taking of life is wrong, no matter how you put it. Hitler thought he was the Antichrist. He was trying to kill anyone/everyone he thought was inferior so he could build his super army of evil brainwashed followers. If you kill someone, you're taking away the life that God gave them...something you have no right to.
It does not matter how people want to interpret something. God still said, "Thou shalt not kill," so yes the Holocaust was a violation of that commandment.
Let's put it this way: If George Bush comes in, and kills your whole family, is it still wrong? All he has to do is claim a new law that states that it is legal. He could say that your family was a family of terrorists plotting an attack and that they were simply defending themselves and the country. Would that still be wrong? Yes.
No matter how you twist it around, or what excuses people may want to come up with, it's still killing people, and it's still wrong and immoral and against God's commandments.

Answer 2

Murder is killing for a bad cause. One can also kill for a good cause, for instance, in the case of euthanasia (which literally means "good death"), or in the case of war (fighting for a cause). Good and bad, of course, are relative: they are values invented by men. From Hitler's perspective, killing Jews was probably killing for a good cause (the extermination of all Jews), and therefore not murder. As always, it depends on your standpoint. It is no universal law that killing people is wrong. It is not even universal law that killing *innocent* people is wrong, as "innocent" presupposes its opposite, "guilty", and guilt presupposes two things: the belief in "free will" and the adherence to certain moral values. As moral values are relative, i.e., *subjective*, all people are objectively innocent. Killing, then, is always only murder from certain points of view. Moreover, the freedom of the will is no given. The law of cause and effect, which holds that every action is a reaction, and therefore not spontaneous, refutes the notion of free will.

Answer 3

I dont care how you 'interpret' it, rounding up innocent people and slaughtering them is NOT lawful

Answer 4

it was just plain wrong and like god would care about a countries laws.i dont think that had anything to do with that.