2006-07-23 05:44:14 · 10 answers · asked by KAREN 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
The legal definition of discrimination is base on things you can't change, - age, gender, color, race, and they throw in religion since freedom of religion is in the Bill of Rights.
But bi-lingual is an ability, and may actually be 'required' to perform adequately for this position.
BTW: That's why there's a big push by the homosexual groups to designate homosexual behavior as "born-that-way". Once they succeed in this, then it becomes anti-discriminatory policy, then like blacks and women, they'll invent a quota system... Then they'll crusade that their numbers are under-represented, say in the teaching field and child care field. yada yada yada.
2006-07-23 05:47:04 · answer #1 · answered by MK6 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Becaue being bilingual is a qualification, which is something you can change about yourself. You cannot change your race or your gender (well, you CAN, but most people don't) or help it if you have a disability or anything. It's like being able to read or knowing how to work a computer. You wouldn't hire a secretary who couldn't do these things and it wouldn't be discrimination if you didn't hire an illiterate person for this position because of the fact that they're illiterate. It's just the same for bilingualism. Some jobs require dealing with non-English speakers and therefore require the person in that position to be bilingual. Simple as that. :-)
2006-07-23 05:50:02 · answer #2 · answered by flu(bad)ence 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
We have to have discrimination to exist. Certain jobs requite skills, other lobs require different skills.
Without discrimination you might need a very serious and risky operation and have some brainless crud insist that he wants to be your surgeon. If you refuse, you're discriminating against ignorance.
The law points out the things that cannot be discriminated against. The list is short, and has to be that way.
2006-07-23 05:57:36 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't understand is it hurting you to work out a bi-lingual sign, did you need to bypass to the E.R. i'm from Canada and, we see bi-lingual signs and indications each and all the time. Any product offered in Canada has to comprise the two English and french, from a %. of gum, a can a pop, any nutrition products(the two factors and get in touch with in the two languages). Even clothing labels have the two languages, and, particular areas of any city meaning China city, little Italy, etc you spot signs and indications of their languages . its form of relaxing attempting to learn yet another tongue.
2016-10-08 05:52:09 · answer #4 · answered by cosco 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because speaking 2 languages anyone can learn, it's an applied skill.
That's like saying...wouldn't a hospital hiring a brain surgeon be discriminating if he wants a brain surgeon
2006-07-23 05:47:36 · answer #5 · answered by Heather 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the company does business with another country, it makes sense that they would want to hire someone who can communicate with customers in that country.
The company is not discriminating, it is hiring someone with the skills they need for the position.
2006-07-24 04:50:06 · answer #6 · answered by Nosy Parker 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's a question of training, not discrimination, in a case like that.
2006-07-23 05:48:06 · answer #7 · answered by TigerLilly 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
being bi-lingual is a skill, unlike beign of a certain race or gender
2006-07-23 05:47:22 · answer #8 · answered by lumwoz 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is part of the job qualification so it isn't discrimination.
2006-07-23 05:48:19 · answer #9 · answered by patticakes 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you must ask,you are not qualified.
2006-07-23 05:49:53 · answer #10 · answered by Bubsy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋