a house someone would have bought with the money he or she had before marriage in case of divorce between an american citizen and a foreigner in america before or after two years of marriage (in america) ?
Thank you
2006-07-23 00:34:47 · 4 answers · asked by giles 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Depends on the state, in California after 1 1/2 years everything is split.
2006-07-23 00:39:43 · answer #1 · answered by Jim C 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Let me make sure I understand correctly. American citizen buys house then two years later marries a non-citizen...and now they are divorcing?
I'm not a lawyer and I'm sure different states have different laws, but if there wasn't a prenuptial agreement signed...I'd say it's going to be split 50/50. Someone will need to buy the other out, or sell the house and split the money.
2006-07-23 00:40:12 · answer #2 · answered by THP 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would hire an attorney and tell that attorney look, you better do a good job on this one, I paid for that house and now I'm paying you so I can keep it. If you fail me on this one, I will tell everyone you really suck as an attorney and not to use you. Word of mouth gets around.
2006-07-23 00:42:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If I understand your question right, it would have to be sold and split 50/50.
2006-07-23 00:37:50 · answer #4 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋