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In (wikipedia) you can find that:
In Medieval Europe, all Asian peoples were thought of as descendents of Shem. By the nineteenth century, the term Semitic was confined to the ethnic groups who have historically spoken Semitic languages. These peoples were often considered to be a distinct race.
In linguistics and ethnology, Semitic (from the Biblical name "Shem") was first used to refer to a language family of largely Middle Eastern origin, now called the Semitic languages. This family includes the ancient and modern forms of Amharic, Arabic, Aramaic, Assyrian, Akkadian, Hebrew, Maltese, Syriac, Tigrinya, etc.
did you get my point?
Semitic race doesn't include jewish race only..it contains many other races including THE ARABS
then how can Arabs be anti-semists while they are also Semitics?
there is only one explanation of that: Israel is using the deep feeling of guilt and sympathy in the west for its own agenda

2006-07-22 21:13:16 · 6 answers · asked by mohamed.kapci 3 in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

6 answers

I see what you are trying to say however I think it is a language tree you are describing and not a family tree which is probably more accurately what semitic is used to describe today. As far as the agenda goes, it would be best if you studied history from more than one side, there are always multiple points of view. Keep an open mind, not everyone does but some of us try. Sidestepping the past will not help anyone improve the future.

2006-07-22 21:23:45 · answer #1 · answered by curiousfurious 2 · 0 0

And why do some other ignorant fools don't do their research before they start spouting off and display their ignorance?

In other words...
Even though a Semite would include all semetic peoples which would includes the Arabs, nevertheless, the term "anti semite" and "anti semitism" was coined specifcially to refer to Jew hatred and not hatred of any Semetic peoples.

This is the dictionary meaning, like it or leave it.

And also, it is entirely concievable and a reality that even someone Jewish can be labeled an Anti semite. So, if someone else displays Jew hatred why can't it be labeled "anti semitism"?

2006-07-23 11:42:19 · answer #2 · answered by BMCR 7 · 0 0

I just would like to say that Maltese aren't Arabic race...

They are their own race. Just as Italians, Germans, Spanish, French, etc.

They do have a history of Arabs owning them, but are not Arabs. Some influence on the Maltese culture.

2006-07-25 22:15:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Methinks thou dost protest too much, Umm. I can think for myself and I am far from ignorant, but gee, when you harbor hezbollah in a country, it makes it kinda easy to figure out where my sympathy would go. Stop radical groups in any country and then maybe people will stop labeling others.

2006-07-23 04:21:05 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The meaning of Anti-Semitism has been borrowed to mean anti-Jews. It is a conflict, but that's how languages go..

2006-07-23 04:18:14 · answer #5 · answered by brand_new_monkey 6 · 0 0

Cause many Arabs hate everyone including themselves.

2006-07-23 04:16:26 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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