There is plenty of doumentation describing how Jews were disliked in Europe. No question there. The Biblical reference to the promised land is something which is only found in Jewish writings and not confirmed in any other literature contemporary with the writing of the Torah, so it does not have enough validity (sorry to those who choose to "believe"). Jews moved into Europe of their own accord during the time of the Crusades because they were the only major group who could travel freely between the Middle East and Europe. they set up trade routes and towns. for the last thousand years there has been no major event in the Middle East displacing Middle Eastern Jews . Can anyone tell me something factual that would convince me that my judgment is wrong on this issue?
2006-07-22 06:13:26 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
The term "occupation" only makes sense in the context of that the land belongs to some other entity who is still.around and has not given up that claim to the land.
The land in question here was never an independant state before 1948.
For centuries, it was part of the Ottoman Empire. Thus, it was legally part of the Empire, and not that the Empire "occupied" the land. That Empire does not exist anymore.
After they ceased to exist, the land became part of the British Empire.
And the British Empire gave up all legal claims to this land in 1948.
That being the case, the State of Israel is not an "occupation". If it is not an occupation, then certainly it has a right to exist, especially considering it is democracy.
2006-07-23 04:02:30 · answer #1 · answered by BMCR 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Israelis (Jews) began buying land in the Palestinian area in the 1800's. As you noted in their writings its their holy land and their place. The Palestinians kicked them out with no renumeration for their lands some time prior to WWII and I don't know the history to say when that was. After WWII many of these people had great influence; there was also great sympathy for them after what Hitler did to their culture. The United Nations then dictate the land of Palestine become an Israeli state. What is often forgotten in the history readings of that decision was that the UN also created a Palestinian State but the people of Palestine rejected it and the chaos today remains.
2006-07-22 06:17:48 · answer #2 · answered by netjr 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No legal claim whatsoever!
For one of the answers, i say that buying land doesn't give you the right of a country! No one took land by force except the Israelis!
Fact: The Jews were negotiating either Palestine or Ghana. We all know what they got!
2006-07-22 06:23:46 · answer #3 · answered by Mas S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you are referring to what is now called Israel, this was established by the United Nations and given to the Jews in 1948 I think? anyway you may want to look at this information!
2006-07-22 06:19:24 · answer #4 · answered by Pobept 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They have an iron-clad claim on the area because their made-up god (Who led them to the only part of the middle east without a drop of oil) gave it to them.
2006-07-22 06:24:21 · answer #5 · answered by iknowtruthismine 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
,1 After the death of Moses the servant of the LORD, it came to pass that the LORD spoke to Joshua the son of Nun, Moses’ assistant, saying: 2 “Moses My servant is dead. Now therefore, arise, go over this Jordan, you and all this people, to the land which I am giving to them—the children of Israel
2006-07-22 06:16:29 · answer #6 · answered by Ronald Reagan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Look up in, Leviticus 26.33 and www.shamar.org.
2006-07-22 06:31:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋