I know the answer. 10 points to the first who can figure this tough one out!
2006-07-21
12:47:21
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22 answers
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asked by
beakndi
2
in
Sports
➔ Baseball
Remember, an official does not have to be 9 innings! All wrong so far!
2006-07-21
12:54:38 ·
update #1
Getting closer, still no correct answer. If You think you have the right answer, tell me how it's done.
2006-07-21
12:57:56 ·
update #2
CLOSER AND CLOSER. STILL WRONG!
2006-07-21
13:01:24 ·
update #3
Rule 8.04 makes the answer ZERO
When the bases are unoccupied, the pitcher shall deliver the ball to the batter within 20 seconds after he receives the ball. Each time the pitcher delays the game by violating this rule, the umpire shall call "Ball." The intent of this rule is to avoid unnecessary delays. The umpire shall insist that the catcher return the ball promptly to the pitcher, and that the pitcher take his position on the rubber promptly. Obvious delay by the pitcher should instantly be penalized by the umpire.
It is therefore possible for a pitcher to delay four times in a row, walking the batter to first base, and then pick him off. If he does this for every batter, he can "pitch" a full game (a no-hitter, incidentally) without ever actually delivering a pitch. Now, it is inconceivable that a pitcher would do that in actual play, or that a manager or umpire would allow it to happen, but it is allowable under the rules.
2006-07-21 13:03:50
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answer #1
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answered by Mister Bob the Tomato 5
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For a game that ends before 9 innings (due to rain or whatever): 13 pitches. Visiting pitcher hits the first (or any, really) batter with the first pitch of the at-bat. The batter then steals or is sacrificed around the bases and scores; all other batters hit the first ball they see into an out. In the middle of the 5th, the game is called on account of rain with the home team ahead, 1-0; the visiting pitcher is credited with both a no-hitter and the loss, having pitched 4 innings, thrown only one pitch to each batter, and having faced one more than the minimum number due to the HBP.
For a complete game no-hitter: 25 pitches; use the same logic as the previous example, just extended to 8-1/2 innings.
2006-07-22 03:49:30
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answer #2
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answered by JerH1 7
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Well an official game is 4 2/3 so you would only have to throw one pitch an inning... so 3 outs would be 3 pitches times 4 innings would be 12 and 2/3 more would be 14 so there you go
2006-07-21 20:19:10
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answer #3
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answered by auniquehuman 2
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It's 27 pitches. One pitch per out for 9 innings. Even if you're not counting a perfect game as a no-hitter, someone could get on base via error and then get picked off. So although not a pefect game, it's still only 27 pitches.
And this assumes you're not doing a cooperative no hitter where more than one pitcher pitches. If you're doing that, well then I lose. I'm not willing to calculate that, and multiple-pitcher no hitters suck.
2006-07-21 19:54:21
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answer #4
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answered by Farly the Seer 5
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LOL, I think Mr. Bob's answer sounds right...zero
When I read the question, my first thought was "a four and a half inning game in which the home team wins, and the home team pitcher retires each batter on one pitch", making the fewest number of pitches 15.
But under that (admitedly improbable) scenario, looks like it's possible to throw no pitches and still allow no runs and no hits, depsite 'pitching' a complete game.
It's also a 'ball' if the pitcher puts his hand to his mouth while on the mound, except in certain cases where, because of weather conditions (cold), the umpires give pitchers permission to go to their mouths while on the mound for the purpose of warming up their hands.
That's a great, great question! And good pickup by Mr. Bob
2006-07-21 21:17:39
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Since you never said "complete game no hitter",the answer is zero. It would have to be a combined no-hitter where a relief pitcher is announced as coming into a game, then substituted for before throwing a pitch. He would still show up in the box score since he was announced. The other guy(s) would have just done the dirty work. Thats the best guess I have.
2006-07-21 19:53:45
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answer #6
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answered by michael s 3
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Well I would say 27 because that is (in theory) the least amount of pitches a pitcher would have to throw for a whole game, yeah the pitcher would be pretty lucky and the batter would have to swing on the first pitch every time....
2006-07-21 19:52:52
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answer #7
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answered by I <3 Edward Cullen!! 2
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Ok well I'm thing that it's 28.I could be totally wrong though.You need 27 outs in a game so lets say that every batter swings on the first pitch but they end up getting out.Then that would be a perfect game so te answer is 28 because lets say there is a hit batter on one pitch.There goes the perfect game and now its a no hitter.So my answer is 28!
2006-07-21 19:52:18
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answer #8
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answered by royalsgirl 4
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27
2006-07-22 03:37:46
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answer #9
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answered by Michael W 2
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Official game is 4.5 innings so assuming the home team is winning and rain washes out play, that'd be 5 innings times 3 batters per who pop, fly, ground out on first pitches...15!
2006-07-21 19:58:28
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answer #10
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answered by fugutastic 6
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