If a drunk driver hits a pregant lady and forces her to abort the child, do you claim murder or loss of property?
2006-07-21 05:57:29 · 6 answers · asked by haterade 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
Murder. It wasn't her choice to have the child ripped away from her.
2006-07-21 06:00:50 · answer #1 · answered by Goose&Tonic 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am not Pro-Choice, but I think it would be logical if he were to be charged with manslaughter unless a deliberate motive could be proven. Loss of property does not make sense, as it pertains to inanimate goods. At least that meaning seems to be the one that is widely understood. If he hit the woman through a genuine accident, I think someone who charged him or her with manslaughter should have a case.
2006-07-21 13:09:51 · answer #2 · answered by spanner 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the crime rises to the level of a felony at a certain age murder can be charged in some states. If the driver could only be charged with DUI I do not see how the charge could exceed vehicular homocide.
2006-07-21 13:08:15 · answer #3 · answered by ringocox 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither; it's an injury. For example, if someone lost their arm in the same accident, do they file for loss or property or personal injury? Personal injury.
2006-07-21 13:03:46 · answer #4 · answered by extton 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither you claim for injuries to the mother. The fetus is not yet human.
2006-07-21 13:01:47 · answer #5 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither...
2006-07-21 14:39:10 · answer #6 · answered by RATM 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋