No difference both shows racism.
Shalom
2006-07-20 15:22:19
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answer #1
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answered by Pashur 7
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That depends - is EVERYONE being denied preferential treatment because of their race? If one race is given preferential treatment, then I think that is racist for everyone involved. If no one is given preferential treatment, then I wouldn't say they were being DENIED preferential treatment, I would say they were being treated the same as all other races.
2006-07-20 17:57:50
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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They both pertain to race,but I don't believe either makes a person a racist. Racism is hatred born out of ingnorance. Giving special treatment or denying special treatment due to race is just stupid.
2006-07-20 18:01:40
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answer #3
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answered by mrsreadalot 3
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it is not right, but that´s the way the world goes.
But race is not the only thing that people are discriminated against. Nowadays it is more rich and poor. For some it´s sex, for some it´s age. Bad, but true....
2006-07-20 17:56:43
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes
2006-07-20 17:55:19
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answer #5
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answered by Flower Girl 6
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not when a certain group already has an advantage.
It's called compensation, not preference.
Until you live in the shoes of a non-white in a white-majority society and realize what it's like, then you will understand.
2006-07-20 17:56:53
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answer #6
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answered by karkondrite 4
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yes its racism, i have gone through that too, i happen to be living in Spain, and im black, i face racism in terms of prefencial treatment from time to time, eg...even in the bus.(read some of my questions)
2006-07-20 18:18:48
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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None. It is all race-based behaviour. People forget, but they can be prejudiced for as well as against.
2006-07-20 17:55:15
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answer #8
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answered by hopflower 7
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no difference at all ... both would be a decision based on race .. thus racism.
2006-07-20 17:55:41
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answer #9
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answered by sam21462 5
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It is what it is in either instance; racism.
2006-07-20 18:18:26
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answer #10
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answered by jfmm 7
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