If you deliberately want that person to go to first, why not just send him there, why all the pitches? What does it accomplish? (Other than waste time)
2006-07-20 08:56:28 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Baseball
There have been instances, even this year, of the batter reaching across and hitting the intentional ball. I think Carlos Beltran of the Mets was one, and maybe Vlad Guerrero of the Angels was another. The answer given that a wild pitch or passed ball can happen is true.
2006-07-20 12:06:11 · answer #1 · answered by mattapan26 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It has take position a pair of cases, sixty 4 and there is a sport which won't be able to discover on reva record, interior the WS a guy had a ideal sport interior the 11th or twelfth, he struck out the first batter, however the catcher drop the ball, then over threw first base, and then changed into pass to third on a fielders determination, and sac fly were given him homestead yet they lost the game, his crew purely had one hit. reva is loopy, maximum of what he's talking about is incorrect. in case you pitch 9 innings both no hit or ideal you nonetheless get credit for it. keep on with his link and click on any of the once that lost in additional effective innings and also you'll see that they are credited with a no hitter. And extrondary what ever, under no circumstances heard or considered that in a stat.
2016-11-24 23:03:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The idea is that something could happen during an intentional walk that could change the game. A pitch could be overthrown, or a batter can swing intentionally (which a Baltimore Oriole did this weekend) that could change the course of the batter/inning/game
2006-07-20 09:00:27 · answer #3 · answered by Chaga 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there's a runner on base, then there's always the chance that one of your intentional balls could actually become a wild pitch, allowing the runner(s) to advance. And there have been cases of players swinging at intentional balls, too.
That being said, I do agree that it's a waste of time. Maybe they just want to make the pitcher throw them so he doesn't get off easy?
2006-07-20 09:01:31 · answer #4 · answered by Craig S 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You'd have to ask the people who made up the official rule book for MLB. If you want someone to get on base without wasting four pitches you could hit him with the pitch, but that tends to lead to fights and ejections.
2006-07-20 09:00:50 · answer #5 · answered by dwaynej 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in case the pitcher messes up an throws a wild pitch or the cather messes up and drops the ball. In most cases you intentionally walk someone when there are runners on base and first base it open -e.g double play situation, or a hot hitter or a hitter that owns the pitcher.
2006-07-20 09:59:06 · answer #6 · answered by GGready 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
becasue you never know when the picther might throw a wild pitch and the runner on base could advance .. Also the ball could slip out of the picthers hand and could end up being a shoulder high 70 MPH pitch .. perfect homerun ball.. which is also why the batter should be ready and in his stance.
2006-07-20 09:21:46 · answer #7 · answered by ThaMagicStick 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
becuase 4 balls is a walk. intentionally, you still have to give 'em 4 wide ones. unless you hit the batter to save your arm. and there's always room for error while intentionally walking someone.
2006-07-20 12:26:32 · answer #8 · answered by public_spirited 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because its in the rule book.
2006-07-20 09:00:30 · answer #9 · answered by smartypants909 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know why.... It's just the rules! 4 balls = walk
2006-07-20 08:59:43 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋