If there are runners on 2nd and 3rd base and 2 outs for example and the ball gets hit to deep left field and the left fielder has a play on the ball but drops it and both runners on base score. Does the hitter get credited for 2 RBI's even though it is scored an error?
2006-07-20 06:39:33 · 15 answers · asked by bruiser1414 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
if its scored an error, then no RBI's
if its scored a hit, then the RBI's count
2006-07-20 06:42:30 · answer #1 · answered by J-Far 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
If the play was scored an error, then the batter gets no RBI, because those runs wouldn't have scored without the error. Now, if he had hit that same ball with one out, then he would probably be credited with one RBI, as the official scorer would likely deem that if the catch were made, the first runner would have scored on a sacrifice fly. There is still no RBI given for the second runner. That's what is intended with rule 10.0.4., which says:
"Credit a run batted in for the run scored when, before two are out, an error is made on a play on which a runner from third base ordinarily would score."
In this scenario, the player would never be credited with 2 RBIs.
2006-07-20 07:47:24 · answer #2 · answered by Craig S 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2006-07-20 06:42:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Technically it's an error. But then again I've seen it scored 2 RBIs for the batter before. Just depends on the slap-nut who's keeping score I guess.
2006-07-20 06:43:16 · answer #4 · answered by zeebus 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, he does not. An error means that if the play was made, the batter would have been out. Therefore, they do not give the batter the RBI's because if there had been no error, no runs would have scored.
2006-07-20 13:47:53 · answer #5 · answered by vincanity 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Error, no RBI because no runners would've scored since it would be 3rd out of inning
2006-07-20 08:57:04 · answer #6 · answered by Chaga 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its an error cause the player had a play on the ball but messed up so the fielder gets an error and the 2 runs become un-earned runs.
2006-07-20 06:45:12 · answer #7 · answered by J-Dizzle 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it's scored an error, then no they don't get the RBI's
2006-07-20 12:09:25 · answer #8 · answered by evie ♥'s her Dodgers 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a undesirable out to the 1st baseman is many times scored F3. in case you desire to apply some style of notation that it replaced right into a undesirable ball i assume you ought to place FL-3. there isn't any longer could desire to checklist an unsuccessful pickoff attempt. on your final state of affairs the run does no longer count extensive form so there isn't any RBI. An run can't score if the third out replaced into recorded in the previous the batter reaches first or a prior runner does no longer attain a base he replaced into compelled to. edit: Whoops, my undesirable. I only observed on your final state of affairs that there replaced into in basic terms one out. So if so, the batter is credited with a FC and an RBI as a results of fact the run scored as a results of fact of him putting the ball in play. besides the undeniable fact that if there have been no outs and he hit right into a double play with a run scoring there isn't any RBI.
2016-12-10 11:08:15 · answer #9 · answered by beisler 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on if the scorer called it a hit or an error.
2006-07-20 07:30:00 · answer #10 · answered by bigboat_65020 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋