it its a n international conspiracy,between Zionism and imperialism,the Palestinians lived in Palestine and had their own state 3000 yr before Christ, the name of Jerusalem, ORE SALIM. is a Canaan name(Canaan are Arabs in origin) its meaning : city of peace, unfortunately it did not see peace since Jews came in.Europe send its trash to the middle east (Jews)and the Arabs are still suffering.,Arabs are very friendly and peace full people,but they have the right to defend their selves and land ,they reacts towards Israeli violence by violence,but since Jews control and own most of Western media means they brain-wash others and make the facts upside down.
2006-07-20 06:38:33
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answer #1
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answered by mmohiedinn 2
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Well, let's see....Jews had been in Cana, Palestine, Israel since the time of the Pharaohs, a couple of hundred years before Christ. They were ordered to leave THEIR land by the Romans around 73 A.D. and could not return upon punishment of death. How long have the Palestinians been there? The Jews are just reclaiming land that has been theirs since before Rome existed.
2006-07-20 13:19:46
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The old testament mentions that God told them to go take the land of milk and honey - but the Palestinians were already there. They have been trying ever since.
Most Christians and all Jews do not want to hear what I wrote or they put a different spin on it.
But anyone can read the bible verses themselves
2006-07-20 13:18:02
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The Isrealites rebelled against the Roman Empire and the Romans scattered them all over as slaves. The Land was called Palestine and the people who lived there, including the jews were known as Palestinians.
The Arabic peoples came later with the Muslim conquest of the area.
You can trace the people,today known as Jews, living in that land back 3500 yrs.
2006-07-20 13:29:16
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes and no.
The Bible says that God gave the land to the Israelites as an inheritance, but He also kicks them out of it several times when they turn their backs on Him. In the Bible He always brings them back when they turn back to Him - the question is have they turned back to Him? And my humble opinion (based on the current state of the nation) is that they haven't (indeed, from a New Testament perspective the Jews are guilty of rejecting the Son of God when He came to them...)
So I would say that yes the claim is based on the Bible, but no they don;t have the right to occupy it until they repent...
That's the way I sees it anyway...
2006-07-20 13:25:56
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answer #5
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answered by Tiger 1
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Palestinen of the land situated west of the Jordan River was also called "land of Canaan" during the period in which it fell under the control of Egyptian vassals traditionally descended from Canaan the son of Ham. After the split of the United Monarchy into two parts, the southern part became the Kingdom of Judah and the northern part the Kingdom of Israel.
The term "Palestine" comes from the word Philistine, the name of an ethnic group which lived in the southern coast of the region. The Philistines disappeared as a distinct group by the Assyrian period. The meaning of their synonym is uncertain but is sometimes understood in Hebrew to mean "invaders" from the root p-l-sh. What is possibly the earliest mention of them occurs in Egyptian texts which record a people called the P-r/l-s-t (conventionally Peleset), one of the Sea Peoples who invaded Egypt in Ramesses III's reign. The Hebrew name פ×שת (PÉléšeth or P(e)léshet, translated Philistia in English) is used in the Bible to denote the coastal region inhabited by the Philistines. The Assyrian emperor Sargon II called the region Palashtu in his Annals. The Greek form Palaistinêi from which English "Palestine" is ultimately derived, was first used in the 5th century BCE by Herodotus who wrote of the "district of Syria, called Palaistinêi". The boundaries of the area he referred to were not explicitly stated, but Josephus used the name only for Philistia. Ptolemy also used the term. In Latin, Pliny wrote of a region of Syria that was "formerly called Palestine" when describing the eastern coast of the Mediterranean.
Learn HISTORY NOT PROPAGANDA you dumb ***
2006-07-20 13:25:21
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Because the Palestine did not do anything with the land when they had it. Just let it go to dirt, the Israels farmed, developed and fought for the land and they are not going to give it up now.
2006-07-20 13:17:27
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answer #7
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answered by redhotboxsoxfan 6
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and what injustice are you talking about?There has been no Palestine for 1400 years......the UN gave the land to Israel.....and they were not imported....if you want to go by the bible....it is this land God gave to the Jewish people, and most of Lebanon....and lastly, I go back to the injustice.....the Israelites do not bomb and kill innocent people, well, not on purpose, they strike and the headquarters, the bases.....the PLO and hamas strike restaurants, bus stops, not where the military are, but where children are....the true innocent.....
2006-07-20 13:20:01
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Try reading your history about the land of Israel that was established in 1945. This should completely explain the whole situation.http://www.ushmm.org/wlc/article.php?lang=en&ModuleId=10005459 This map will explain there was no such place as Palastine when the Country of Israel was established.
2006-07-20 13:30:06
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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It's based both on the Bible and on International treaty.
2006-07-20 13:17:52
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answer #10
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answered by BigRichGuy 6
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